AIRBUS A319/320/321
Sample Oral Questions
(Updated
11/06/01)
Note:
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Pre
Departure
1. The captain will brief the entire crew prior to each trip, as
well as any new crewmember(s) added during the trip (T or F) FOM 5.3.3
True. The briefing sets the tone for a positive
working environment and as a minimum consists of introducing the crew and
ensuring open communications regarding the operation.
Briefing Guidelines:
2. The company requires all crewmembers to maintain and carry a
valid passport on all flights (T or F)
FOM 4.4.14
True. What else can I say on this one?
3. During the preflight inspection, the flight crewmember notes one
of the gear collars is missing, he/she should: PHB 3.4.1
The flight may proceed if the crew ensures that all 3 gear
collars/pins are removed from the landing gear.
4. Exterior Intermediate Inspection – at each intermediate stop
where a crew change does not occur, one flight crew member must ensure the
aircraft condition is acceptable for flight (free of damage and fluid leaks).
In addition, a flight crew member must check:
PHB 3.1.3
5. Is it permissible to have frost adhering to
the underside of the wings? PHB 3a.1.2
Frost on underside of wings is permitted if frost
layer does not extend outside of the fuel tank area, and thickness does not
exceed 3mm (approximately 1/8 inch).
6. What would be required if the battery voltage
is less than 25.5 volts, during preflight? PHB 3.3
A charging cycle of 20 minutes is required.
Check on ECAM ELEC page, battery contactor closed
and batteries charging.
After 20 minutes:
If battery voltage >= 25.5V:
7. Can the aircraft’s batteries be fully depleted
in flight? ___ On the ground? ___ PHB 7.1.4
The battery chargers are powered any time the BAT
bus is powered and provide charging when the battery voltage drops below a set
value. Battery automatic cut-off logic prevents complete discharge of the
battery when the aircraft is on the ground and unpowered.
Note: If, when the aircraft is on the ground, at
least one ADIRU is supplied by aircraft batteries:
8. When are the aircraft’s batteries connected to
the DC BAT BUS? PHB 7.1.7, 7.2.2
BAT 1(2) pb – AUTO:
9. What is the significance of the green collared
circuit breakers on the flight deck? PHB 7.1.10
10. Can an APU FIRE test be performed with the
APU running? PHB 8.2.2
The automatic shutdown of the APU will not occur
while the flight crew is performing this test.
The APU is equipped with two identical detection
loops (A & B) each of which contain one heat sensing element and a computer
(Fire Detection Unit). The sensing element is located in the APU compartment.
The FDU issues a fire warning when both loops detect an overheat. If one loop
fails, the fire warning system remains operational with the other loop. A fire
warning is also issued if both loops fail within 5 seconds of each other.
The APU is equipped with one fire extinguisher
which is discharged by pressing the AGENT DISCH pb on the APU FIRE panel.
On the ground, detection of an APU fire causes
automatic APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge. In flight, there is no
automatic APU shutdown, and the extinguisher must be manually discharged.
An APU fire is indicated by an aural CRC and
illumination of the APU FIRE pb and MASTER WARN lights.
11. If WINDOW HEAT is required prior to engine start, how would the
pilot select the system ON? PHB 6.1.5
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb:
12. What is the total usable fuel tank quantity
(density at 6.676 lb/gal)? PHB 2.8.1
|
|
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
Wing Tanks |
27,500 lb |
27,500 lb |
|
Center Tank |
14,500 lb |
14,500 lb |
|
ACT |
- |
10,500 lb |
|
TOTAL |
42,000 lb |
52,500 lb |
13. What electrical power source(s) are required
to refuel the aircraft? PHB 9.1.6
A fueling/defueling point and refueling control
panel is located under the right wing. The wing tanks can also be refueled
through overwing refueling points. Fueling is normally accomplished
automatically by pre-selecting the required fuel load on the fueling panel.
External power, the APU, or battery power can be used for refueling.
14. Can APU BLEED air be selected if ground air
is connected? (Yes or No) PHB 3.4.1
No. Do not use APU BLEED if conditioned
air is connected.
15. Is it permissible for external air to be
introduced into the air conditioning system with another source already
supplying air to facilitate increased airflow during hot weather
operations? PHB 10.1.4
No. It is possible for external air to be
introduced in the system with another source already supplying air. Crews
should exercise caution not to allow simultaneous introduction of external air
with another source supplying the system.
16. When the PACK FLOW sel (A319/320) or ECON pb (A321) is selected
LO (A319/320) or ECON (A321), the pack flow will go automatically to 100% if
the cooling demand cannot be satisfied (T or F) PHB 10.4
A319/320: Flow reverts to HI regardless
of selector position during single pack operation, or if the APU is the bleed
source. The zone controller may override pilot selected pack flow (HI/NORM/LOW)
or, it may increase APU speed or engine idle to meet temperature demands.
A321: The system delivers
high flow (40% more than ECON flow) regardless of selector position during
single pack operation, or if the APU is the bleed air source. If the crew
selects ECON flow, and the temperature demand cannot be satisfied, the system
delivers normal flow (20% more than ECON flow). The zone controller may
override pilot selected pack flow (NORM/ECON) or, it may increase APU speed or
engine idle to meet temperature demands.
17. What does the DITCHING pb do? PHB 10.5.4
The DITCHING pb on the pressurization panel, when
selected ON, allows the pilot to close all exterior openings below the
flotation line. This will enhance flotation of the aircraft in case of
ditching.
System sends a “close” signal to:
18. What is the caution about activating the DITCHING pb on the ground
with external (low pressure) air hooked up and all doors closed? PHB 10.6
If on the ground, with low pressure conditioned
air connected, all doors closed, and the DITCHING pb is switched ON, a
differential pressure will build up.
19. How should the ADF/VOR sel on the GLARESHIELD
be positioned for all phases of flight? PHB 3.4.1
ADF/VOR Selector Switches - OFF
20. Name the three hydraulic systems and describe
how they are powered. PHB 11.1.2-4
GREEN
YELLOW
BLUE
21. What is the purpose of the Power Transfer
Unit (PTU)? PHB 11.1.5
The PTU is a reversible motor-pump located
between the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems. It enables the green system to
pressurize the yellow system, and vice versa, without fluid transfer. The PTU
is automatically activated when the differential pump pressure output between
the green and yellow systems exceeds a predetermined value (500 PSI). On the
ground, when the engines are not running, the PTU enables the yellow system
electric pump to pressurize the green system. Operation of the PTU is displayed
on the ECAM page and also indicated via an ECAM memo.
PTU operation is inhibited when the:
22. Can the EGPWS system be tested? PHB 13.4.7
To test the EGPWS, push the GPWS – G/S pb.
In flight, above 2,000’ RA and below 8,000’ RA:
On ground:
Note: If the flight crew presses this button
briefly when a glideslope warning is on, the G/S light extinguishes and the
“GLIDE SLOPE” aural warning (soft or loud) stops.
23. If your flight package includes a TPS Departure Plan you do not
need a final weight and balance (T or F).
FOM 9.1.2, TPS Line Training Aide
False. A final weight and balance message
(ACARS/hard copy/ radio relay) is required to provide data not obtainable from
the TPS Departure Plan (e.g., actual weight of aircraft, actual passenger load,
actual stab trim). The TPS should be used for departure only when the final
weight and balance message does not cover the actual takeoff condition
(different runway, anti-ice, wind, etc.).
24. The Full Authority Digital Engine Control
(FADEC) is powered by _____. PHB
16.1.3
The FADEC controls the engine in all operating
regimes for optimum fuel efficiency; maintains operating limits both in forward
and reverse thrust; and provides start sequencing.
The system has its own alternator rendering it
independent of the aircraft electrical system when the N2 rpm is
above a set value. If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches
over to aircraft electrical power.
Each FADEC is a dual channel (A and B) computer providing full
engine management. One channel is always active while the other is a backup
designed to takeover automatically in case of primary channel failure. Each
FADEC has an Engine Interface Unit (EIU) which receives signals from various
systems and sources and transmits appropriate thrust demands to the FADEC.
The FADEC maintains a reference N1
computed as a function of throttle position, ambient conditions, and bleed
configuration. It increases idle speed for bleed demands, high engine or IDG
temperatures, and approach configuration. It also limits engine
acceleration/deceleration thus preventing engine stalls or flameouts.
Except during engine start, the FADEC does not
provide warning for exceeding an EGT limit.
25. During automatic start interruption, the
FADEC will: PHB 16.1.6
During an automatic start, the pilot initiates
the process by placing the ENG MASTER switch to ON. The FADEC controls all
sequencing (pack valves, start valve, ignition, fuel valves). If an abnormal
start ensues, the FADEC will interrupt the start process. This will prevent
exceeding the start limit(s) and will initiate a new start sequence.
The start sequence is aborted in case of hot start,
stalled start, or no ignition.
During automatic start interruption, the FADEC
will:
An automatic start sequence can be interrupted
manually by the pilot; however, such action terminates the FADEC control and
sequencing.
During an automatic in-flight start, the FADEC
provides ECAM cautions; however, it does not automatically interrupt the
start sequence.
26. If external electrical power is connected and being used by the
aircraft, will the EXT PWR pb remain on after engine start? PHB 7.2.2
The ON light remains illuminated even when the
engine generators are supplying the aircraft.
External power has priority over the APU
generator. The engine generators have priority over external power.
27. In order to expedite taxi, it is permissible for the F/O to
taxi the aircraft when the captain is busy (T or F). PHB 18.2.3
False. The captain will taxi the aircraft at all
times.
28. Maximum taxi speed is ___. PHB 18.2.3
Do not exceed 30 knots on straight tracks and
limit speed to approximately 10 knots in turns.
40% N1 maximum break-away thrust.
29. During taxi, if the brakes grab or you experience
braking/steering difficulty, what action must be accomplished? PHB 11.5.5, 3.7
Reset the BSCU.
To reset the BSCU on the ground:
CAUTION: In case of complete loss of braking,
refer to the QRH procedure.
30. During the FLIGHT CONTROLS check, ensure full sidestick
displacement is held for sufficient time for full control surface travel to be
reached. Accomplish this check in a slow and deliberate manner (T or F) PHB
3.8
True. When full sidestick (or rudder deflection greater than 22
degrees) is applied, the F/CTL page is automatically shown for 20 seconds.
31. The RAIN RPLNT pb is inhibited on the ground
with the engines stopped (T or F) PHB 6.2.2
True
32. When do the A319/320 center tank fuel pumps
operate in AUTO? PHB 9.1.7
A319/320: Normal fuel feed
sequencing is automatic. When there is fuel in all tanks, the center tank feeds
the engines first (even though the wing tank pumps operate continuously).
With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the center tank
pumps operated for two minutes after both engines are started to confirm center
tank pump operation prior to takeoff. After takeoff, the center tank pumps
restart when the slats are retracted and continue to operate for five minutes
after the center tank is empty or until the slats are extended.
With the MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank
pumps operate continuously. The crew must select the CTR TK PUMP pbs OFF when
the center tank is empty.
A321: The fuel transfer
system controls the flow of fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks, which
feed the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence:
With the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the Fuel Level
Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) has automatic control of the transfer valve. When
the transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows through the jet
pump and creates suction. This suction moves the fuel from the center tank to
the related wing tank. The FLSCU automatically closes the associated center
tank transfer valve when the wing tank is full. The transfer valve reopens the
center tank transfer valve when the engines have used 550 lbs of wing tank
fuel.
With the ACT pb in AUTO, automatic control of the transfer occurs
after takeoff at slats retraction. It is initiated if the center tank high
level sensor has been dry for 10 minutes and fuel remains in either ACT. Fuel
transfer from the ACTs to the center tank is made by pressurizing the ACT,
closing the ACT vent valves, and opening the air shut-off and inlet valves.
ACT2 transfers first.
With the MODE SEL in MAN, the center tank
transfer valves open. Wing tank overflow must be prevented by selecting the CTR
TK XFR pbs OFF when the wing tanks are full. They must also be selected OFF
when the center tank is empty.
During transfer, if the center tank high level
sensor gets wet, transfer from the ACT stops. The transfer valve opens when the
center tank high sensor is dry for ten minutes.
IDG cooling is accomplished by fuel. Some fuel
from the high pressure pump passes through the IDG heat exchanger and returns
to the respective wing outer cell (A319/320) or wing tank (A321) through a fuel
return valve. The fuel return valve is controlled by the FADEC which regulates
IDG temperature.
A319/320: If the outer cell is
full, the recirculated fuel overflows to the inner cell. To prevent wing tank
overflow when the center tank is supplying fuel, the center tank pumps
automatically stop when the wing inner cell is full. This allows the wing tanks
to feed the engines until approximately 1,100 lbs of fuel has been used from
the applicable wing tank(s); at which time the center tank pumps resume
operation.
MODE SEL FAULT (A319/A320/A321): Amber light
illuminates, and ECAM caution appears when center tank has more than 550 lbs of
fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.
ACT FAULT (A321): Amber light illuminates and
ECAM caution appears when the center tank has less than 6,614 lbs of fuel and one
ACT has more than 550 lbs of fuel.
33. Continuous ignition is provided automatically
(with the MODE selector in NORM) when:
PHB 16.1.7
The ignition system, for each engine, consists of
two, identical, independent circuits (A & B). Each circuit is controlled by
the respective FADEC.
During automatic start on the ground, one igniter
is activated and the other serves as a backup unless ignition is insufficient.
The FADEC automatically alternates the use of igniters at each start. Ignition
to each engine is provided and terminated automatically. During manual or
in-flight automatic start, both igniters are activated.
Continuous ignition is provided automatically
(with the MODE selector in NORM) when:
Continuous ignition may be selected manually by
positioning the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START. If continuous ignition is
required after an engine is started, it is necessary to cycle the ENG MODE
selector to NORM then back to IGN/START.
34. What is the maximum takeoff weight for the
A319/320/321? PHB 2.2.2
|
Max Takeoff Weight |
|
|
A319 |
166,400 lbs |
|
A320 |
169,700 lbs |
|
A321 |
205,000 lbs |
35. Using the Takeoff Performance System (TPS) Departure Plan, how
can you determine the value to insert in TO SHIFT field for an intersection
departure (e.g., PIT 28LX) FOM 9.4.6
Subtract the runway length corresponding to the
depicted runway intersection (28LX) on the TPS from the total length of the
runway (28L).
36. What configuration discrepancies will not trigger an ECAM
warning or caution until takeoff thrust is applied? PHB 13.1.1
If the airplane is not properly configured
for takeoff, the following warnings (red) and cautions (amber) are triggered
when the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed or when takeoff power is applied:
The following are only triggered when takeoff
power is applied:
37. If the ECAM message NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE is annunciated on
takeoff or during ILS approach, the flight crew should: PHB 21-171
If the message occurs at takeoff initiation or in
ILS/LOC approach (LOC green)
If the message occurs during non precision
approach
38. What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement after
takeoff (SRS indicated)? PHB 2.13.1
39. If icing conditions are anticipated, or if airframe icing is occurring
when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON? OFF?
PHB 3a.1.3
Select WING ANTI ICE ON after thrust reduction
altitude.
Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at
the FAF.
If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI ICE may
be left ON for landing.
40. If the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff,
what action will automatically occur?
PHB 12.2.4
The flaps will retract automatically at 210
knots.
Climb
41. To reduce workload and improve safety, use the full capability
of the autoflight, ATS, and FMS whenever possible (T or F) PHB 18.1.2
True. Use the full capability of auto flight and
FMS whenever possible. Use of the A/THR system is mandatory. If any automated
system fails, malfunctions, or becomes a distraction, remove that level of
automation by reverting to the basic mode. If this occurs, it is extremely
important to be aware of the loss of associated protections and changes in
system functionality. FMS programming should be accomplished well in advance of
high workload flight phases. Both pilots will monitor the FMA during flight to
verify FCU selections. During normal operation, the PF should select the onside
autopilot. Do not allow set up and operation of automated systems to interfere
with the primary duties of basic aircraft control, complying with ATC
clearances, and maintaining outside vigilance.
42. If the pilot fails to follow the flight director command bars
during manual flight what will occur?
PHB 14.1.5
SPEED PROTECTION when FD orders are not followed
|
||
CONDITIONS
|
ACTION
|
CONSEQUENCE
|
|
When A/C speed is:
|
|
|
When A/C speed is:
|
|
43. In order to standardize communication during manual flight,
standard phraseology is required. If the pilot flying wanted to use managed
speed, he/she would announce: PHB
18.1.3
Communication During Manual Flight
|
|
|
Speed |
“SPEED SELECT” or “SPEED ENGAGE” |
|
Heading/Nav |
“HEADING SELECT” or “NAV ENGAGE” |
|
Managed/Open Climb (Des) |
“OPEN CLIMB (DESCENT) SELECT” or “CLIMB (DESCENT) ENGAGE” |
|
Vertical Speed |
“VERTICAL SPEED PLUS (MINUS) ___” or “ALTITUDE HOLD” |
|
Note:
|
|
44. There are five thrust lever positions defined by stops or
detents. Each of these detents represents an upper thrust limit. If a thrust
lever is set between two detents, the FADEC selects ____. PHB 16.1.4
The thrust levers are used to set any thrust in
manual mode or the maximum thrust limit in automatic mode. There is no
mechanical connection between the levers and the engines. The position of each
lever (Thrust Lever Angle – TLA) is electronically measured and transmitted to
the FADEC, which computes the thrust rating limit.
There are 5 lever positions defined by stops or
detents:
Each of these positions represents an upper
thrust limit. If a lever is set in a detent, the FADEC selects the rating limit
corresponding to that detent. If the thrust lever is set between two detents,
the FADEC selects the rating limit corresponding to the higher detent. This
limit is displayed on the upper ECAM.
45. What is the turbulence penetration speed at or
above 20,000 feet for the A319/320, A321 PHB 2.4.1
|
|
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
At or above 20,000 feet |
275 KIAS/.76M |
300 KIAS/.76M |
|
Below 20,000 feet |
250 KIAS |
270 KIAS |
46. Engine continuous ignition is automatically provided when ENG 1
or 2 anti-ice is selected ON (T or F) PHB 6.2.1
True. Continuous ignition is selected when the
valve is opened and the ANTI ICE ENG pb is selected on.
47. When do the wing tank transfer valves
automatically latch open? PHB 9.1.7
A319/320 Only: The wing tank
transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner cell quantity
drops to 1,650 lbs thus allowing the outer cell fuel to drain into the inner
cell. The transfer valves open simultaneously in both wings and remain open
until the next refueling operation. During steep descents and
acceleration/deceleration, the transfer valves may open prematurely and trigger
a LO LVL warning.
48. A319/320: When would the crew select the LO position on the
PACK FLOW selector? When would HI be selected? PHB 3.4.1
PACK FLOW Selector (A319/320)
ECON FLOW Selector (A321)
Note: If the APU is supplying bleed air for air
conditioning, pack controllers select high flow (A319/320) or normal flow
(A321) automatically, regardless of selector position.
49. After a crew oxygen mask has been used, pressing the RESET
control slide cuts off the oxygen mask microphone (T or F). PHB 15.2.1
RESET/TEST control slide – The crew member
presses the slide and pushes it in the direction of the arrow to test the operation
of the blinker, the regulator supply, system sealing downstream of the valve,
regulator sealing, and system operation. Pressing the RESET control slide after
the oxygen mask has been used cuts off the oxygen mask microphone.
50. During flight, when the flight deck
crewmember turns the FASTEN SEAT BELT sign off, a flight deck crewmember
will: FOM 4.8.11
When the seat belt sign is turned off, a flight
deck crew member will make an announcement advising passengers to keep their
seat belts fastened at all times when seated.
When the fasten seat belt sign is illuminated in
flight, a flight deck crew member will make an announcement instructing
passengers to return to their seats and remain seated with their seat belts
fastened.
51. What protections are provided during flight
in Normal Law? PHB 12.1.5
|
NORMAL |
ALTERNATE
With speed stability |
ALTERNATE
Without speed stability |
ABNORMAL ATTITUDE |
ABNORMAL ATTITUDE With return to
Normal attitude |
DIRECT
|
MECHANICAL
|
|
Load Factor Protection |
Load Factor
Protection |
Load Factor Protection |
Load Factor Protection |
Load Factor Protection |
|
|
|
High Alpha Protection |
Low Speed Stability |
|
|
Low Speed Stability |
|
|
|
High Speed Protection |
High Speed Stability |
|
|
High Speed Stability |
|
|
|
Pitch Attitude Protection |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Bank Angle Protection |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Yaw Damping & Turn Coordination |
Yaw Damping Only |
|
|
Yaw Damping Only |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
“USE MAN
PITCH TRIM” |
“MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” |
52. The IDG is cooled by fuel after it passes through the
Hydomechanical Fuel Unit (HMU). Excess fuel is then returned to ____. PHB 16.1.5
A Fuel Return Valve (FRV) is controlled by the FADEC
and ensures that there is adequate fuel flow through the IDG to satisfy cooling
requirements. Excess fuel is then returned to the respective outer wing cell.
53. What are the
altitude limits for the APU generator and the APU bleed air? PHB 16.3.1
The APU generator can supply 100% of load up to
25,000’. Above this altitude, there is a slight reduction in capacity. On the
ground, the generator can supply the entire electrical system while it provides
bleed air for air conditioning or engine start. Electrical output has priority
over bleed air. Bleed air may be provided up to 20,000’. In order to improve
engine thrust output, the APU can be used to pressurize the aircraft during
takeoff.
Limitation: APU air bleed extraction for wing
anti-icing is not permitted.
54. An amber THR LK flashes on the FMA. What does
this indicate? PHB 14.1.12
The thrust lock function prevents thrust
variations when the autothrust system fails and disengages. The thrust lock function is activated when
the thrust levers are in the CL detent (MCT detent with one engine out) and:
The thrust is locked or frozen at its level prior
to disconnection. Moving the thrust levers out of the CL or MCT detent
suppresses the thrust lock and allows manual control by means of the thrust
levers.
When thrust lock function is active:
55. When ALT CRZ is displayed on the FMA, the autopilot allows
altitude to vary by ____ to minimize thrust variations. PHB 14.1.7
When the autopilot is maintaining the MCDU
entered cruise altitude (“ALT CRZ” displayed on the FMA), the A/THR holds the
target Mach, and the altitude varies +/- 50’ to minimize thrust variations.
56. In addition to CRZ altitude, the PROG page displays optimum
(OPT) and recommended maximum (REC MAX) altitudes. Under what circumstances
will the use of REC MAX be prohibited?
PHB 18.4.3
REC MAX altitude provides 1.3 g protection. Under
no circumstances will REC MAX altitude be used when turbulence is
present.
57. The FMGS will reduce the aircraft speed _3_ minutes prior to
entering holding, provided speed is engaged.
PHB 18.5.3
The FMS will reduce aircraft speed 3 minutes
prior to holding entry. It may be advantageous to request a clearance to reduce
to holding speed (green dot) immediately. This will reduce the required holding
time and fuel burn at the holding fix.
58. The E/WD has priority over the SD. If the upper ECAM DU fails
(or is selected off), E/WD data is automatically transferred to the lower DU (T
or F). PHB 13.1.1
E/WD (Upper Display) Unit Failure – E/WD has
priority over the SD. If the upper ECAM screen fails (or is switched off), E/WD
data is automatically transferred to the lower screen.
SD (Lower Display) Unit Failure or One Display
Unit Operative – If the lower ECAM screen fails (or is turned off), or when
only one ECAM screen is operative, SD information can be temporarily displayed
by:
ECAM/ND Transfer – The ECAM/ND XFR switch on the
SWITCHING panel allows the transfer of E/WD or SD data to the captain’s or
F/O’s ND.
Both ECAM Display Units Failed – If both ECAM
screens fail or are switched off, the E/WD information can be transferred to
the captain’s or F/O’s ND by the ECAM/ND XFR switch. SD data can be displayed
temporarily on the applicable ND by pressing and holding the applicable system
key on the ECAM control panel.
59. In order to notify the flight attendants of an emergency, the
flight deck crew would: FOM 7.5.4,
4.8.14
Use the flightdeck-to-cabin signals to
communicate an emergency condition. On the Airbus, you would depress the
Emergency Call pb. The “A” flight
attendant will proceed to the flight deck immediately, while the remaining
flight attendants will prepare the cabin for an emergency.
60. If an emergency is declared, the flight attendants will expect
a flight deck crewmember to provide them with the TEST information. What does
the TEST include? FOM 7.5.4
T = how much Time
is available
E = what type of Emergency
S = what is the brace Signal
T = Take special
instructions
61. Is it permissible for an emergency caregiver to enter the
flight deck to communicate directly with a MedLink physician? FOM 7.16.3, FOB 10-1
Medical practitioners will not be admitted to the
flightdeck; communication will be via interphone.
62. If a fault is detected by the SEC or electrical power to a
spoiler is lost, the spoiler(s) will:
PHB 12.1.3
If a fault is detected by the SEC or if
electrical power is lost, the affected spoiler(s) automatically retracts. If
hydraulic pressure is lost, the spoiler(s) either remains at the existing
deflection, or at a lesser deflection if forced down by aerodynamic forces. If
a spoiler fails on one wing, the symmetrical panel on the other wing is
deactivated.
63. When a digital computer behaves abnormally, the
flight crew may be able to stop the abnormal behavior by interrupting the power
supply to the processor for a short time (approx 10 seconds). Most computers
can be reset with a pb; however, for some systems the only way to interrupt the
electrical power is to pull the associated circuit breaker. Where would the
pilot find this procedure? PHB 3b.2.1
PHB Chapter 3b – Supplemental Normal Procedures
64. What flight deck lighting is available if
normal electrical power is lost? PHB 5.20.1
65. An ECAM action calls for the flight crew to disconnect an IDG.
Can this IDG be reconnected in flight? PHB 7.1.2
Each engine drives an Integrate Drive Generator.
The IDG converts variable engine speed to constant speed for optimum generator
operation. The IDG oil is cooled by a fuel/oil heat exchanger. The IDG can be
disconnected from its associated engine by the IDG disconnect switch. It can
only be reconnected on the ground.
CAUTION:
66. In flight, if only one generator is supplying the entire
electrical system, the entire galley load is shed (T or F). PHB 7.1.2
The main galley (A319/320), all galleys (A321),
and in-seat power supply are shed.
67. Describe the function of the Ram Air Turbine (RAT), and when
does it automatically deploy? PHB 7.1.7
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed
is above 100 kts, the RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes the Blue
hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically-driven emergency generator. A
generator control unit controls generator output which is considerably lower
than that of the main generators.
Once the emergency generator is up to speed it
will supply power to the AS ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS (via the ESS TR). During RAT
deployment and emergency generator coupling (approximately 8 seconds), the
batteries supply power to these buses.
After landing, the DC BAT bus is automatically
connected to the batteries when airspeed drops below 100 knots. When the speed
decreases below 50 knots, the AC ESS bus is automatically shed, and power is
lost to the CRTs.
The RAT can also be deployed manually by pressing
the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb on the overhead panel. The RAT can only be stowed
on the ground.
The RAT can also be extended by depressing the
RAT MAN ON pb, on the hydraulic panel. This pb will cause only the
pressurization of the Blue hydraulic system and will not provide emergency
electrical power.
68. If EMERG ELEC PWR MAN ON is selected ON with normal A/C
electrical power available, what occurs?
PHB 7.1.7
If the pilot activates the RAT, during flight
under normal electrical supply, it will assume electrical supply of the AC and
DC ESS and ESS SHED buses. All other buses continue to be powered by their
normal channels.
69. What conditions must be met for an engine
fire warning to be issued? PHB 8.1.2
Each engine is equipped with two identical
detection loops (A & B) each of which contain three heat sensing elements
and a computer (Fire Detection Unit). The sensing elements are located in the
pylon nacelle, engine core, and fan section. The FDU issues a fire warning when
both loops detect an overheat in a particular area. If one loop fails, the fire
warning system remains operational with the other loop. A fire warning is also
issued if both loops fail within 5 seconds of each other.
The ECAM will issue appropriate messages if any
component of the detection system fails. An engine fire is indicated by an
aural CRC, the illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, and MASTER WARN lights.
Each engine is equipped with two fire
extinguishers which are discharged by pressing the associated AGENT DISCH pb on
the respective engine FIRE panel.
70. Do both cargo smoke detectors (in one loop) normally have to detect
smoke before an alarm sounds? PHB
8.1.4
Both cargo compartments are equipped with smoke
detector loops. The forward compartment contains two smoke detectors in the
A319/320 and four smoke detectors in the A321. In the A319/320, the aft
compartment contains two loops with two detectors each. In the A321, the aft
compartment contains three loops with two smoke detectors in each. A Smoke
Detection Control Unit issues a smoke warning when two smoke detectors of one
loop detect smoke. If one smoke detector fails, the system remains operational
with the other detector.
Cargo smoke is indicated by an aural CRC, the
illumination of the MASTER WARN and CARGO SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel.
One extinguisher bottle supplies one nozzle in
the forward compartment and two nozzles in the aft compartment. The agent is
discharged by pressing either the FWD or AFT DISCH pb.
If the cargo smoke warning is activated in either
compartment, the associated isolation valves close and the extraction fan
stops.
71. The flight crew will make a pre-arrival announcement after
leaving cruise altitude (approximately 20 minutes prior to landing). This
alerts the flight attendants the sterile flight deck (NO PED sign) will occur
shortly (T or F) FOM 4.8.11
True.
This announcement notifies flight attendants and passengers of ETA and
other appropriate information (e.g., turbulence, seat belt sign, weather,
etc.).
72. An amber SPD BRK memo appears when: PHB 12.1.3
A green SPD BRK memo appears on ECAM when the speedbrakes
are extended. The memo flashes amber if the speedbrakes are extended when the
thrust is above idle.
73. Speedbrake extension is inhibited in which
flap configuration(s): PHB 12.1.3
Speedbrake extension is inhibited if:
If an inhibiting condition occurs, the
speedbrakes retract automatically. To regain control of the speedbrakes, the
inhibiting condition must be corrected and the SPEED BRAKE lever must be moved
to the RET position for ten seconds.
74. What are the maximum winds for an autoland approach, landing,
and rollout? PHB 2.13.3 & 2.3.1
|
Headwind |
30 knots |
|
Tailwind |
10 knots |
|
Crosswind other than CAT II/III |
20 knots |
|
Crosswind CAT II/III |
15 knots |
75. What are the maximum flaps/slats extended
speeds (VFE) for the A319/320/321?
PHB 2.4.1
|
FLAPS |
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
1 |
230 |
235 |
|
1+F |
215 |
225 |
|
2 |
200 |
215 |
|
3 |
185 |
195 |
|
FULL |
177 |
190 |
Normal Takeoff Note: At heavy takeoff weight, the S speed on the
A321 may be higher than the MAX speed of CONF 1+F (225 knots). In this case,
continue to accelerate. On reaching 210 knots the automatic flap retraction
will occur and the MAX speed will move to 235 knots (PHB 18.3.2).
76. When configuring for approach and landing, how is the max speed
for the next flap lever position depicted?
PHB 13.2.4
An amber = shows the VFE corresponding
to the next flap lever position.
77. When cleared for an ILS approach, while still a considerable
distance from the runway, you desire to delay configuration of the gear and
flaps. The ONLY acceptable technique is the ___. When utilizing this technique,
the distance with reference to the published fix that corresponds to 1½ dots
and ½ dot respectively is ___ / ___. PHB 18.6.6
Alternate ILS Configuration Technique
|
|
|
Aircraft Distance with Reference to the Published Fix |
Accomplish the Procedures Associated with: |
|
3 nm |
1½ dots |
|
2 nm |
½ dot |
|
1 nm |
G/S Intercept |
|
|
78. During flight, the number 2 autopilot failed.
What is your ILS approach capability?
QRH OD-5
CAT 3 Single.
79. Is the A319/320/321 authorized to conduct LDA
approaches? PHB 18.6.8
LDA approaches must have a usable glideslope to a
DA. If the glideslope is inoperative, the approach is not authorized.
In order to enable the aircraft logic, the LDA
with glideslope approaches have been coded in the NAV database as a LOC.
Note: An autoland from an LDA is not
authorized. Only the LDA/DME with glideslope is available at KDCA, the Rosslyn
LDA is not authorized.
80. The flight crew may only modify VAPP
through the MCDU if required under what circumstances? PHB 18.6.5
Do not enter a VAPP lower than
VLS + 5 knots.
If landing in CONFIG 3 with ice accretion, do not
enter a VAPP lower than VLS + 10 knots.
Note: See FIL 4-01
81. If the published MDA on an ASR approach is not a multiple of
100, the pilot should round the minimums up to the next 100’ (T or F) PHB 18.6.14
True. When the published MDA is not a multiple of
100, round it up to the next 100’ (e.g., 810’ is rounded up to 900’). Set this
“adjusted” MDA in the FCU and use this “adjusted” MDA for the minimum descent
altitude. When an intermediate step-down altitude(s) is designated, set the FCU
to the step-down altitude(s), then to the “adjusted” MDA.
82. Pilots will fly all approaches with the rate of descent and
flight parameter defined in the FOM, unless non-normal conditions require
deviation and are briefed. The rate of descent and flight parameters
include: FOM 5.10.8
Rate of Descent - By 1,000 feet AFE, the descent
rate is transitioning to no greater than 1,000 fpm.
Flight Parameters - Below 1,000 feet AFE (IMC) or
500 feet (VMC), the aircraft is:
Execute a go-around when the rate of descent is
excessive or the flight parameters can not be maintained.
83. The low energy warning “SPEED SPEED SPEED” protection system is
only available in which flap configuration?
PHB 12.1.5
Low energy warning available in CONF 2, 3, or
FULL, between 100’ and 2,000’ AGL when TOGA not selected. Produces aural “SPEED
SPEED SPEED” when change in flight path alone is insufficient to regain a
positive flight path (Thrust must be increased).
84. How is ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK cancelled? PHB 14.1.12
ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA thrust
regardless of the positions of the thrust levers. This protection is available
from lift-off to 100 feet RA on approach.
ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications:
To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust,
disconnect the autothrust.
Note: ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited:
85. The weather radar has predictive windshear capability. The
system operates when the aircraft is below ____ feet AGL. PHB 13.3.8
The Predictive Windshear system operates when the aircraft is below
1,500’ AGL. It scans the airspace within 5 nm forward of the aircraft for
windshears. When a windshear is detected, a warning, caution, or advisory
message appears on the PFD and (depending on the range selected on the ND) an
icon appears on the ND. Predictive windshear warning and caution are associated
with an aural warning. During takeoff, both warnings and cautions are available
within 3 nm. Alerts are inhibited above 100 knots and up to 50’. During
landing, alerts are inhibited below 50’.
When the WINDSHEAR switch is in AUTO, the Predictive Windshear
function is activated. Windshear areas are detected by the antenna scanning
below 2,300’ RA, even if the transceiver selector is set to OFF, and displayed
on the ND if below 1,500’.
|
Alert Level |
Aural Warning |
PFD |
ND |
|
Warning (Approach) |
“GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” |
W/S AHEAD (red) |
Windshear icon |
|
Warning (Takeoff) |
“WINDSHEAR AHEAD” (twice) |
W/S AHEAD (red) |
|
|
Caution |
“MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY” |
W/S AHEAD (amber) |
|
|
Advisory |
Nil |
Nil |
Reactive Windshear system: When a FAC detects
windshear conditions, it triggers a warning:
When the aircraft configuration is 1 or more, the
windshear detection function is operative during:
Predictive windshear aural alerts have priority
over TCAS, EGPWS, and other FWC aural warnings. They are inhibited by windshear
detection by FAC and stall warning aural messages.
86. A Predictive Windshear System (PWS) icon is considered a ___
risk of hazardous convective weather.
QRH OD-4
HIGH
87. With regard to a Microburst Alert issued by a tower or other
ATC facility, you should know that this alert is nearly 100% accurate (T or
F). FOM 10.6.3
True. If not issued specifically for your runway,
consider how it may affect your flight path.
88. In dealing with windshear or potential windshear, you should
know that the average windshear lasts only ___ minutes. FOM 10.6.3
Do not takeoff or land until conditions
improve. Average windshear lasts only 10 – 15 minutes.
89. What is the maximum landing weight for the
A319/320/321? PHB 2.2.2
|
Max Landing Weight |
|
|
A319 |
137,800 lbs |
|
A320 |
142,200 lbs |
|
A321 |
171,500 lbs |
90. When should autobrakes be selected to LOW or
MED? PHB 3.12
91. What is the hydraulic source for normal
brakes, and when are they available?
PHB 11.3.2
The Normal Brake system is powered by the Green
hydraulic system.
Normal brakes are available when:
Braking is activated either manually by pilot
pressure on the brake pedals or automatically through the autobrake system.
Antiskid is available with normal brakes. There is no normal brake pressure
indication in the flight deck.
92. When is the alternate brake system
automatically selected? PHB 11.3.5
If green hydraulic pressure is insufficient, the
yellow hydraulic system is automatically selected to provide alternate brakes.
Braking capability is the same as normal brakes, except for autobraking. A
triple brake and accumulator pressure indicator displays yellow system left and
right brake pressure, as well as accumulator pressure.
Alternate brakes can also be provided without
antiskid. During alternate braking, the antiskid becomes inoperative:
If the antiskid is not available, braking is
achieved by the pedals, and brake pressure must be limited by monitoring the
yellow system brake and accumulator pressure indicator to prevent wheel
locking. If neither normal nor alternate braking is available, the brake
accumulator can provide at least seven full brake applications.
93. Full ground spoiler extension occurs during
landing when: PHB 12.1.3
The ground spoilers are ARMED by raising the
SPEED BRAKE lever. Ground spoiler retraction occurs when the thrust levers are
at idle and the speed brake lever is down, or when at least one thrust lever is
advanced above idle.
Partial Ground Spoiler Extension - During
landing, partial spoiler extension occurs when:
This partial spoiler extension (by decreasing
lift), eases compression of the second main landing gear strut, and
consequently leads to full ground spoiler extension.
Full Ground Spoiler Extension – The spoilers
extend automatically at touchdown of both main gear or in case of a rejected
takeoff (speed above 72 knots) when:
94. Upon landing, the recommended procedure to deactivate the
autobrakes system is to ___. PHB 18.7.2
If conditions permit, disengage autobrakes before
20 knots for smoother braking. The recommended deactivation of autobrake system
is accomplished by depressing the brake pedals.
95. After an emergency landing when an evacuation
is not warranted, an announcement should be made as soon as possible to
inform passengers and flight attendants. The recommended wording is: FOM 7.20
96. How do you initiate the evacuation command? QRH 19
Initiate the evacuation by using the passenger
address system. “This is the captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”, and press
EVAC COMMAND.
97. After touchdown, where will the Trimmable
Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) be positioned?
PHB 12.1.2
After touchdown, the system automatically sets
pitch trim to zero as the pitch attitude becomes less than 2.5 degrees.
98. If available, external electrical power and air should be
connected whenever the anticipated time at the gate exceeds 35 minutes (T or
F) FOM 5.12.6
If the anticipated gate time is greater than 35
minutes, do not start the APU during arrival. After parking at the gate,
establish external power followed by external air. Not less than 15 minutes
prior to departure, start APU to allow the disconnect of external electrical
power/air.
99. Opening a cabin entry/service door from the outside with the
escape slides armed will ___ ? PHB 5.21.1
Each door is equipped with a single lane escape slide
or slide-raft. A slide arming lever connects the slide to the floor brackets
when in the ARMED position. If the door is opened from the inside while the
slide is armed, the door is pneumatically assisted and the slide will inflate
and deploy automatically. The slide may be inflated manually if auto mode
fails. Opening the door from outside disarms the door and slide.
100. Before switching the batteries to OFF during the Securing
Checklist, the crew should wait until the APU flap is fully closed. This will
take approximately ___ minutes after the APU AVAIL light extinguishes. PHB 3.16
About 2 minutes after APU AVAIL light
extinguishes.
|
ADDITIONAL MEMORY
LIMITATIONS |
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OPERATION LIMITS
Maximum 90 degree crosswind component
(including gusts) for takeoff and landing: 29 knots Maximum 90 degree crosswind component (including
gusts) for CAT II/III approaches: 15 knots Limiting tailwind component for takeoff and
landing: 10 knots Maximum operating altitude: 39,000 feet SPEED LIMITS Maximum operating airspeed (VMO):
350 KIAS Maximum operating mach number (MMO):
0.82M Maximum gear extension speed (VLO):
250 KIAS Maximum gear retraction speed (VLO):
220 KIAS Maximum gear extended speed (VLE):
280 KIAS/0.67M
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION Engine Anti-ice ON when OAT (Ground) / TAT
(Flight): 10 degrees C or below (except during climb and cruise when the
temperature is below –40 degrees C SAT) Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during
descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below –40 degrees C
SAT) FUEL
Maximum allowable fuel imbalance between
left and right wing tanks (outer + inner): 1,000 lbs HYDRAULICS, BRAKES, & LANDING GEAR Maximum landing gear extension altitude: 25,000
feet FLIGHT CONTROLS Maximum operating altitude with slats, or
flaps and slats extended: 20,000 feet AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM Autopilot Engaged – Minimum Height: 100
feet AGL After Takeoff (if SRS is indicated)
POWERPLANT Minimum oil quantity for dispatch: 12.5
quarts |
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Updated 11/06/01, PHB Revision 14-01 |