AIRBUS A319/320/321
Sample Oral
Questions
April 1,
2002
(Updated
Note: This document may
be obtained in Word or Adobe format from the Downloads section.
Pre-Departure
1. The minimum flight attendant compliment for the A319, A320 and
A321 is as follows: FOM 4.3.9
|
|
Standard |
PAX Boarding / |
At gate with |
|
A319/320 |
3 |
3 |
1 |
|
A321 |
4 |
4 |
2 |
2. The
captain arrives at the aircraft and observes that the inbound crew made an entry
into the ME-100 describing the APU as being inoperative. The APU is then placed
on the MEL by Maintenance. Since this MEL is not on the original dispatch
release, is an amended release required? FOM 5.3.9
Yes
An amended Flight Release is required when a change is made in MEL/CDL items.
Additional
changes requiring an amended Flight Release:
·
T.O. Min fuel quantity
·
Gate Release fuel quantity (decrease only)
·
Destination
·
Alternate(s)
·
Aircraft tail number
·
Remarks content
3. During the exterior aircraft inspection, the pilot notices
that the horizontal stabilizer is set at 5 units of nose up trim. What action
should the pilot take? PH 12.1.2
Contact
maintenance. The stabilizer is electrically controlled by one of three motors,
or mechanically controlled by the pitch trim wheels (through a cable), provided
green or yellow hydraulic power is available. Mechanical pitch trim control has
priority over electrical control. The trim wheels move any time the stabilizer
moves. After touchdown, the stabilizer trim is automatically reset to 0°.
4. During the exterior aircraft inspection, it is noted that
the red disk associated with the APU extinguishing agent is missing. What does
this signify? PH 8.2.2
Indicates
the agent has discharged overboard due to bottle overpressure.
5. During preflight of the GNADIRS panel, if the IRUs were not previously aligned, the crewmember should
select ALIGN IRS on the MCDU _____ to avoid excessive ADIRS drift. PH 3.4.1
If
Inertials not previously aligned:
·
MODE Selectors
NAV
·
Select ALIGN IRS (3R) on MCDU just after selecting NAV to
avoid excessive ADIRS drift
If
Inertials previously aligned:
·
Wait at least 3 minutes after the aircraft comes to a
complete stop
·
MODE Selectors
OFF then NAV within 5 seconds
·
Select ALIGN IRS (3R) on MCDU during the 30-second
realignment
Note:
The IRSs are normally aligned to the departure
airport reference point coordinates. Use these coordinates, as stored in the
navigation database for any flight with GPS. Use of gate coordinates
(insert/slew in the INIT A page) should be reserved for aircraft with both GPSs inoperative.
6. It is
permissible to use both APU bleed air and external (LP) conditioned air simultaneously
if conditions such as very high ambient temperatures are present (True or
False). PH 2.9.3
Do
not use external conditioned air simultaneously with the airplane air
conditioning packs.
7. Is it
permissible to use high-pressure (HP) ground air to provide an air supply to
the packs for heating or air conditioning? PH 2.9.4
Airplane
air conditioning packs may be used with high-pressure ground air provided the
air supply is free of oil contamination.
8. If the
APU is supplying bleed air for air conditioning, the pack controllers select
____ flow automatically, regardless of the PACK FLOW/ECON FLOW switch position.
PH 3.4.1
Pack
controllers select High flow (A319/320) or
9. The
A319/320/321 batteries supply power for: PH 7.1.4
·
APU starting if the main buses are not powered
·
Essential aircraft systems in the event of total AC power
loss
·
Refueling
10. What
electrical power sources may be used for refueling? PH 9.1.6
·
External power
·
APU
·
A fueling/defueling
point and refueling control panel is located under the right wing. The wing
tanks can also be refueled through overwing refueling
points. Fueling is normally accomplished automatically by pre-selecting the
required fuel load on the fueling panel. External power, the APU, or battery
power can be used for refueling.
11. During preflight, the flight crew notices that the
accumulator pressure is not in the green band on the ACCU PRESS indicator. What
is the required action? PH 3.4.1
The
accumulator must be in the green band. If required, use the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to
recharge the brake accumulators.
WARNING:
Yellow and Green hydraulic systems are pressurized from the Yellow electric
pump through the PTU. Check with ground crew prior to activating the pump.
12. While
reviewing the fuel slip and comparing it with the fuel on board, a discrepancy
between the "Gate Release" fuel load and the actual fuel on board is
noticed. What is the maximum variance between the gate release fuel load and the
actual fuel on board? FOM 5.3.12
A
variance of 500 pounds or 1% of the Gate Release fuel load (whichever is
greater) is allowed.
|
If the FOB is ____ than |
Then notify the
Dispatcher to
|
|
within |
No further action required providing T.O. MIN fuel and maximum takeoff/climb weights requirements are met |
|
greater |
correct the W&B or defuel |
|
less |
correct the W&B and obtain an amended Flight Release (if fuel is not
added) or add fuel |
Do
not takeoff with less than T.O. MIN fuel.
13. May a
flight deck crewmember enter the actual fuel on board into the ACARS prior to
each flight deck crewmember confirming the correct fuel load? FOM 5.3.15
No.
Enter the actual fuel on board into ACARS only after fueling is complete, the
fuel load is within allowable variance, and each flightdeck
crewmember has confirmed the correct fuel load.
Note:
FOB is automatically loaded into ACARS Initialization page on Airbus aircraft.
14. What is the
total usable fuel tank quantity for the A319/320? The A321?
PH 2.8.1
|
|
A319/320 |
A321 |
Wing
Tanks
|
27,500 lb |
27,500 lb |
|
Center Tank |
14,500 lb |
14,500 lb |
|
ACT |
- |
10,500 lb |
|
TOTAL |
42,000 lb |
52,500 lb |
15. During preflight, the flight crew should ensure that the
engine oil quantity is at or above _12.5_quarts. PH 3.4.1
·
FUEL Balance, configuration, quantity
·
HYD Quantity
·
ENG Oil quantity at or above 12.5 quarts
·
DOOR O2 pressure
16. During FMGS initialization, the message "PLEASE
WAIT" appears. The flight crew should: PH 3.4.1
If
PLEASE WAIT appears, do not press any MCDU key until this message
extinguishes.
17. A cost
index of _70_ is mandatory unless COST INDEX 35 is annotated in the remarks
section of the flight release. FOB 10-02
Tactical
Cost Index: Initially use the minimum cost index which is printed on the Flight
Release. For each flight, SABRE will automatically add the planned enroute time to the OFF time to determine if the flight is
planned to arrive ahead of schedule. If an early arrival is calculated, SABRE
will automatically determine if the flight will still arrive at or before the
scheduled arrival time using the Long Range Cruise Cost Index. If so, the crew
will receive an ACARS message 5 minutes after takeoff requesting the Long Range
Cruise Cost Index be used.
18. During preflight, what information found in the TPS may be
preset in the FMGC? TPS Line Training Guide
MSL MIN LVL OFF altitude for the expected runway/flap
configuration.
19.
Reference the TPS Line Training Guide located in this study guide. Assuming
that the TPS has been validated (OAT is 10°C), what is the MSL engine out
acceleration altitude for runway 18L at CONF 2?
TPS Line
Training Guide
1,750
MSL
20.
Reference the TPS Line Training Guide located in this study guide. Assuming
that the TPS has been validated (OAT is 10°C), can AT be used for departure on
runway 18R? TPS Line Training Guide
Yes,
AT 50°C
21.
Reference the TPS Line Training Guide located in this study guide. What Flap
setting must be used with the data in the Thrust / V-Speed Section? TPS Line
Training Guide
CONF
1
22. It is
not necessary to brief normal or standard takeoff procedures during the
Departure Review. The following items should be part of every Departure Review:
FOM 5.3.19
Review
the departure with emphasis on anticipated track and altitude restrictions. It
is not necessary to brief normal or standard takeoff procedures. Brief the
following items:
·
ATC Clearance
·
SID or IFR Departure
·
Any applicable special considerations, such as:
o
unique airport advisory departure information,
o
unique noise abatement procedures,
o
unique engine failure during takeoff procedures,
o
significant terrain or obstacles in the terminal area
relative to departure routing,
o
significant weather conditions, and
o
any other known risks and intentions
23. The enroute weather may cause a
Severe Weather Avoidance Plan (SWAP) to be enacted; therefore, ATC may issue a
When
CDRs are anticipated, the dispatcher will confirm
sufficient Fuel/MEL for specific CDRs by annotating
the following in the Flight Release RMKS section:
RMKS/DISPATCHER HAS CONFIRMED FUEL/MEL
SUFFICIENT FOR FOLLOWING CDRS
ADVISE
DISPATCHER OF CDR YOU RECEIVE FROM ATC WHEN TIME PERMITS
The
dispatcher will list the confirmed CDRs on the Flight
Release.
Procedure
- When ATC issues a CDR clearance do the following:
|
CDR Procedure |
|
|
Step |
Action |
|
1 |
Check the ///SPECIAL INFO MESSAGES/// section of the Flight Release
to see if the amended clearance is a listed CDR. |
|
2 |
If the amended clearance is not a listed CDR, proceed to Step
6. |
|
3 |
Check the RMKS/ section of the Flight Release to see if the CDR has
been confirmed by the controlling dispatcher. |
|
4 |
If the CDR has not been confirmed, proceed to step 6. |
|
5 |
If the CDR has been confirmed by the controlling dispatcher, the
captain may accept the clearance. Notify the controlling dispatcher via ACARS or radio of the reroute
as time permits. (End of procedure) |
|
6 |
Relay the amended clearance or CDR to the controlling dispatcher and Wait for an amended Flight Release before accepting the amended
clearance. |
24. When
should a takeoff alternate be declared? QRH OD-1, FOM 10.5.5
If
departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums for runway in use, call
dispatcher for a takeoff alternate.
Exception:
Airbus may use landing minimums down to CAT IIIA at the departure airport, when
available.
Pushback/Taxi
25. If,
during engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to move due
to a parking brake failure, the crewmember should: PH 3.5
Immediately
release the PARKING BRK handle to restore braking by pedals.
26. Icing
conditions exist on the ground and for takeoff when ____: PH 2.6.1
Ground
and takeoff:
·
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is 10°C (50°F) or below and
·
visible moisture in any form is present (i.e., clouds, fog
with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals), or
·
when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where
surface snow, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze
on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
In
flight:
·
Total Air Temperature (TAT) is 10°C (50°F) or below and
·
visible moisture in any form is present (i.e., clouds, fog
with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals).
Engine
anti-ice operation:
·
Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight
operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated (except during climb
and cruise when the temperature is below -40°C SAT).
·
Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent in
icing conditions (including temps below -40° SAT).
Wing
anti-ice operation:
·
Select WING ANTI ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude
·
Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at the FAF
·
If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI ICE may be left ON
for landing
Wing
anti-ice is not permitted on the ground, or in flight
when the TAT exceeds 10°C.
27. Low
visibility taxi operations will be conducted in accordance with the Surface
Movement Guidance Control System (SMGCS) or appropriate foreign system. If the
RVR is less than _600_, taxi operations are only authorized in
conjunction with the use of the Low Visibility Chart(s) in the Route Manual.
FOM 5.5.3
Policy:
Taxi operations are authorized if the captain decides visibility is sufficient.
28. During
reduced/low visibility taxi operations, pilots should request approval to cross
all runways (True or False). FOM 5.5.3
True:
During reduced visibility, communicate with ATC before crossing all runways.
29. During the FLIGHT CONTROLS check, the F/CTL page is
automatically shown when full sidestick is applied.
Accomplish this check in a slow and deliberate manner, and hold full sidestick long enough for full control surface travel to be
reached (True or False). PH 3.8
True. When
full sidestick (or rudder deflection greater than 22°) is applied, the F/CTL page is
automatically shown for 20 seconds.
30. During taxi for departure, the ACARS fails prior to the crew
receiving their Final Weight and Balance. The TPS has been validated. What
weight and balance information should be requested via the radio? FOM 9.1.4
Form
OF-11B side 1 shaded items.
31. What is the maximum takeoff weight for the A319, A320, and
A321? PH 2.2.2
Maximum
Takeoff Weight
|
|
|
A319 |
166,400 lbs |
|
A320 |
169,700 lbs |
|
A321 |
205,000 lbs |
32. The following
items should be part of the Takeoff Briefing: FOM 5.6.1
·
Initial heading
·
Initial altitude
·
Initial fix or route segment
·
Summarize applicable special considerations previously
briefed and any new considerations
33. The QRH Ops
Data section addresses Severe Weather/Windshear
policies and procedures. One windshear precaution for
takeoff is to consider increased rotation speed" in order to increase
aircraft performance capability after lift-off. How is the increased rotation speed
determined? FOM 10.6.3
1.
Set V1, VR, and V2 based on
actual takeoff weight
2.
Determine RWY limit takeoff weight for departure runway at
appropriate flap/bleed/temp combination from TPS Airport Analysis Data Section.
Use final TOW and W&B message if TPS is not available/usable.
3.
Determine VR based on the maximum runway
allowable takeoff weight
4.
Mentally note increased VR and delay Rotate
callout and rotation to that speed (not more than 20 kts
above actual weight VR); do not reset airspeed bugs to the
higher speed. If windshear is encountered at or
beyond the actual takeoff weight VR, do not attempt to
accelerate to the increased VR, but rotate without hesitation. Do not
delay rotation beyond 2,000 ft of runway remaining.
34.
Reference the TPS Line Training Guide located in this study guide. ACARS shows
the gross takeoff weight is 154,200 lbs. and provides data for runway 36L and
36R. ATC asks if you can use runway 18L for departure. Assuming the TPS has
already been validated, and the OAT is 10°C with calm winds, is the aircraft
legal for takeoff on runway 18L? TPS Line Training Guide
Yes,
CONF 2
35.
Reference the TPS Line Training Guide located in this study guide. ACARS shows
that the gross takeoff weight is 152,700 lbs. and provides data for runway 36L
and 36R. ATC asks if you can use runway 18L for departure. Assuming the TPS has
already been validated (OAT is 10°C), is the aircraft legal for takeoff? TPS
Line Training Guide
Yes
36.
Reference the TPS Line Training Guide located in this study guide. ACARS
provides data for 18L and 18R. Is the aircraft legal for takeoff on runway 18L
at C11? TPS Line Training Guide
No.
The ACARS and TPS do not provide the C11 intersection data.
37. Do not
attempt a 180° turn on a surface less than _100_ feet wide (A319/320) or
_105_ feet wide (A321). PH 18.2.3
·
A319/320 100 feet wide
·
A321 105 feet wide
Takeoff
38. The
minimum takeoff RVR for the departure runway is 600. If the actual RVR is 1400,
is the first officer permitted to conduct the takeoff? FOM 5.7.1
The
captain will conduct the takeoff (ground roll through clean-up) when visibility
is less than
·
1600 ft RVR for any RVR on that runway, or
·
Ό statute mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway)
39. The RVR
for the runway in use is 1600. If the first officer has accumulated 40 hours on
the aircraft type (including IOE), is he permitted to conduct the takeoff? FOM
4.14.7
No.
A first officer is considered low time if he has less than 100 hours in the
aircraft type (including IOE).
The
captain will make all takeoffs (from ground roll initiation through clean-up),
approaches (from 3,000 feet AGL and below), and all landings when any one of
the following conditions exist:
·
Runway is
o
contaminated with water, snow, slush, or similar conditions
which may adversely affect aircraft performance
o
RVR is reported 4000 or less
o
Braking action is less than Good
o
Crosswind component is greater than 15 knots
·
Operating at an airport with the prevailing visibility Ύ
mile or less
·
Operating at any
·
Any reported windshear in the
airport vicinity
·
Other circumstances as determined by the captain
Note:
CAT II/III operations are authorized with a low time first officer.
40. What is
the maximum brake temperature for takeoff? PH 2.10.2
300°C
41. If a FLEX temperature is not entered in the PERF TAKEOFF
page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, a warning
will be generated. In this case, the flight crew should:
PH 18.3.2
Move
the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and execute a max thrust takeoff. When the
thrust levers are moved to the TOGA detent, the warning will be cancelled.
42. The ECAM
inhibits the warnings/cautions which are not paramount from 80 knots to 1500'
AGL (or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first). What types of items
are not inhibited when the ECAM TO INHIBIT memo is displayed? PH 18.3.6
·
ENGINE FIRE
·
APU FIRE
·
ENG FAIL (ENGINE SHUTDOWN)
·
ENG OIL LO PR
·
L+R ELEV FAULT
·
A/P OFF
·
CONFIG
·
FWC 1+2 FAULT
43. The
captains call REJECT will alert the first officer that the captain has
decided to discontinue the takeoff. The first officer duties include: PH 18.3.6
·
Diverts his attention to airspeed and trend line (Ensure the
speed trend line indicates deceleration)
·
Informs the flight attendants and passengers of the
situation, via the PA, in a timely manner.
·
Advises the control tower of the rejected takeoff and
intentions, when able.
44. If an
ECAM message should appear after liftoff, no action will be taken (except
canceling the audio warning through MASTER WARN light) until the: _____. PH
21.1.2
·
Flight path is stabilized
·
The airplane is at least 1,000 AFE or obstacle clearance
altitude, whichever is higher, in case of engine failure during takeoff,
approach, or go-around.
45. After liftoff, the predictive windshear
system generates a warning with a red "W/S AHEAD" indication on the
PFD, a windshear icon on the ND, and an aural
"WINDSHEAR AHEAD." What is the appropriate procedure? PH 18.8.3
·
During takeoff: Reject the takeoff
·
After lift-off: TOGA. Follow SRS commands. Retract
gear & flaps on schedule
·
During approach: Execute a normal go-around using
TOGA thrust. Retract gear and flaps/slats on schedule.
46. The
flight crew should not attempt to maneuver around a predictive windshear icon (on the radar display) unless _____? PH
18.8.1
Unless
accompanied by a weather return. The icon only displays areas of moisture and
may not display more severe adjacent areas of windshear.
If maneuvering is accomplished, ensure that wings are level approaching windshear area to maximize aircraft performance.
47. Wing
anti ice should be turned ON in anticipation of icing conditions or if airframe
icing is occurring. If required during departure, it should be turned on after
_____. PH 3a.1.3
Wing
anti-ice operation:
·
Select WING ANTI ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude
·
Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at the FAF
·
If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI ICE may be left ON
for landing
Wing
anti-ice is not permitted on the ground, or in flight
when the TAT exceeds 10°C.
48. At heavy takeoff weights, the S speed on the A321 may be
higher than the MAX speed of CONF 1 + F (225 knots). In this scenario, is it
permissible to retract the flaps/slats at speeds below S speed?
PH 18.3.2
No.
At heavy takeoff weight, the S speed on the A321 may be higher than the MAX speed
of CONF 1+F (225 knots). In this case, continue to accelerate. On reaching 210
knots the automatic flap retraction will occur and the MAX speed will move to
235 knots.
Climb
49. What is
the fuel feed sequence on the A321? PH 9.1.7
The
fuel transfer system controls the flow of fuel from the center tank to the wing
tanks, which feed the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence:
·
Aft ACT transfers fuel into the center tank
·
Forward ACT transfers fuel into the center tank
·
Center tank transfers fuel into the wing tanks
·
Wing tanks
With
the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the
Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) has automatic control of the transfer
valve. When the transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows
through the jet pump and creates suction. This suction moves the fuel from the
center tank to the related wing tank. The FLSCU automatically closes the
associated center tank transfer valve when the wing tank is full. The transfer
valve reopens the center tank transfer valve when the engines have used 550 lbs
of wing tank fuel.
With
the MODE SEL pb in MAN, the
center tank transfer valves open. Wing tank overflow must be prevented by
selecting the CTR TK XFR pbs
OFF when the wing tanks are full. They must also be selected OFF when the
center tank is empty.
With
the ACT pb in AUTO,
automatic control of the transfer occurs after takeoff at slats retraction. It
is initiated if the center tank high-level sensor has been dry for 10 minutes
and fuel remains in either ACT. Fuel transfer from the ACTs
to the center tank is made by pressurizing the ACT, closing the ACT vent
valves, and opening the air shutoff and inlet valves. ACT2 transfers first.
During transfer, if the center tank high level sensor gets wet, transfer from
the ACT stops. The transfer valve opens when the center tank high sensor is dry
for 10 minutes.
50. What are
the turbulence penetration speeds for the A319/320 and A321 aircraft? PH 2.4.1
|
|
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
At or above 20,000 feet |
275 KIAS/.76M |
300 KIAS/.76M |
|
Below 20,000 feet |
250 KIAS |
270 KIAS |
51. The
recommended holding speed for a flight above 6,000 feet through 14,000 feet is _230
KIAS_. FOM 5.8.3
|
Altitude |
Maximum Airspeed |
Inbound Leg Timing |
|
MHA through 6,000 ft |
200 KIAS |
1 Minute |
|
Above 6,000 ft through 14,000 ft |
230 KIAS (210 KIAS where published) |
|
|
Above 14,000 ft |
265 KIAS |
1.5 Minutes |
52. In
addition to CRZ altitude, the PROG page displays optimum (OPT) and recommended maximum
(REC MAX) altitudes. REC MAX altitude provides _1.3_ g protection. PH
18.4.3
Under
no circumstances will REC MAX altitude be used when turbulence is present.
Cruise
53. What is
the maximum landing gear extension altitude? PH 2.10.3
·
Maximum landing gear extension altitude: 25,000 feet
·
Maximum operating altitude with slats or slats and flaps
extended: 20,000 feet
·
APU generator can supply 100% of load up to 25,000 feet
·
APU bleed air may be provided up to 20,000 feet
54. Should normal
electrical power be lost, what flight deck lighting is maintained? PH 5.20.1
·
Captains instrument panel
·
Standby compass
·
Right dome light (provided DOME switch set
DIM or BRT)
55. If
engine anti ice is in use and AC electrical power is lost, what happens to the
engine anti-ice valves? PH 6.1.3
·
Engine anti-ice: The valves open automatically
·
Wing anti-ice: The valves close automatically
56. When
would the flight crew pull a yellow circuit breaker? PH 7.1.10
·
Green Monitored by ECAM system
·
Red Wing tip brake C/B
·
Yellow pulled in compliance with
prescribed procedure on battery power only
57. Both
cargo compartments are equipped with smoke detector loops. On the A319/320, the
forward compartment contains _2_ smoke detectors, whereas the A321 contains _4_
smoke detectors.
PH 8.1.4
|
|
FWD |
AFT |
|
A319/320 |
2 smoke detectors |
2 loops with 2 smoke detectors in each |
|
A321 |
4 smoke detectors |
3 loops with 2 smoke detectors in each |
Both cargo compartments are equipped with smoke detector
loops. The forward compartment contains two smoke detectors in the A319/320 and
four smoke detectors in the A321. In the A319/320, the aft compartment contains
two loops with two detectors each. In the A321, the aft compartment contains
three loops with two smoke detectors in each. A Smoke Detection Control Unit
(SDCU) issues a smoke warning when two smoke detectors of one loop detect
smoke. If one smoke detector fails, the system remains operational with the
other detector.
Cargo smoke is indicated by an aural CRC, the
illumination of the MASTER WARN and CARGO SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel.
One extinguisher bottle supplies one nozzle in
the forward compartment and two nozzles in the aft compartment. The agent is
discharged by pressing either the FWD or AFT DISCH pb.
If
the cargo smoke warning is activated in either
compartment, the associated isolation valves close and the extraction fan
stops.
Cargo
Fire Suppression: If a cargo smoke warning occurs on the ground when the cargo
door is open, notify appropriate ground personnel. Do not discharge the cargo
fire extinguisher. Notify ground personnel to investigate the source of the
smoke.
When
the fire extinguisher has been discharged, notify ground personnel before opening
the door.
58. The RAT
is a propeller driven pump that pressurizes the blue hydraulic system. It can
extend automatically when AC 1 and AC 2 are not powered, or it can be deployed
manually by depressing either the RAT
·
EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb Extends
the RAT and powers the emergency generator by pressurizing the blue
system
·
RAT MAN ON pb
Will only pressurize the blue system, but not activate the
emergency generator.
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed
is above 100 kts, the RAT automatically deploys and
pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven
emergency generator. A generator control unit controls generator output, which
is considerably lower than that of the main generators.
Once the emergency generator is up to speed it
will supply power to the AS ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS (via the ESS TR). During RAT
deployment and emergency generator coupling (approximately 8 seconds), the
batteries supply power to these buses.
After landing, the DC BAT bus is automatically
connected to the batteries when airspeed drops below 100 knots. When the speed
decreases below 50 knots, the AC ESS bus is automatically shed, and power is
lost to the CRTs.
The RAT can also be deployed manually by pressing
the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb
on the overhead panel. The RAT can only be stowed on the ground.
The RAT can also be extended by depressing the
RAT MAN ON pb, on the hydraulic
panel. This pb will cause
only the pressurization of the Blue hydraulic system and will not provide
emergency electrical power.
59. As long
as both pilots operate their sidesticks
simultaneously, a "DUAL INPUT audio voice message is given every
five seconds and both green CAPT and F/O side stick priority lights flash. PH
12.2.2
Sidestick priority logic:
·
When only one pilot operates the sidestick,
it sends control signals to the computers
·
When the other pilot operates his sidestick
in the same or opposite direction, the system adds the signals of both pilots
algebraically. The total is limited to the signal that would result from the
maximum deflection of a single sidestick.
·
Both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK PRIORITY lights flash and
a DUAL INPUT audio voice message is given every 5
seconds as long as both pilots operate their sidesticks
simultaneously.
·
A pilot can deactivate the other sidestick
and take full control by keeping his priority takeover pb depressed.
·
To latch the priority condition, press the takeover pb for more than 40 seconds. This
allows the pilot to release his takeover pb
without losing priority. However, a pilot can at any time reactivate a
deactivated sidestick by momentarily pressing the
takeover pb on either sidestick.
·
If both pilots press their takeover pbs, the pilot that presses last gets priority.
·
In a priority situation:
o
A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.
o
A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken
control, if the other sidestick is not in the neutral
position (indicates a potential and unwanted control demand).
o
A PRIORITY LEFT or PRIORITY RIGHT audio message is given
each time priority is taken.
60. Pressing
the EMER CANC pb cancels
aural warnings/cautions and extinguishes MASTER WARN/CAUTION lights. When
should this function be used? PH 13.2.1
The
EMER CANC pb should only be
used in flight to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS.
61. If the autothrust is malfunctioning, how can the crew disable it
for the remainder of the flight? PH 14.1.12
When
an autothrust instinctive disconnect pb is pressed and held for more
than 15 seconds, the autothrust system is
disconnected for the remainder of the flight, including a floor protection. The autothrust system can
only be reset during the next FMGC power-up (on the ground).
62. The
thrust lock function prevents thrust variations when the autothrust
system fails and disengages. How should the crew suppress the thrust lock
condition? PH 14.1.12
Moving
the thrust levers out of the CL or MCT detent suppresses the thrust lock and
allows manual control by means of the thrust levers.
The
thrust lock function is activated when the thrust levers are in the CL detent
(MCT detent with 1 eng out) and:
·
The pilot disengages A/THR by pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU, or
·
The A/THR disconnects due to a failure
The
thrust is locked or frozen at its level prior to disconnection.
When
thrust lock is active:
·
THR LK flashes amber on the FMA
·
ECAM ENG THRUST LOCKED flashes every 5 seconds
·
ECAM displays THR LEVERS
MOVE
·
A single chime sounds and the MASTER CAUTION light flashes
every 5 seconds. All warnings cease when the thrust levers are moved out of the
detent.
63. TOGA LK
will annunciate in green on the FMA after the aircraft leaves alpha floor
conditions. Is autothrust active? How is TOGA LK
cancelled? PH 14.1.12
To
cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust, disconnect the autothrust.
ALPHA
FLOOR protection commands TOGA thrust regardless of the positions of the thrust
levers. This protection is available from lift-off to 100 feet RA on approach.
ALPHA
FLOOR calls up the following indications:
·
A FLOOR in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the
FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as a floor conditions are
met.
·
TOGA LK in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the
FMA when the aircraft leaves the a floor conditions. TOGA
thrust is frozen and thrust lever movement will have no effect.
Note: ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited:
·
under
alternate or direct flight control law.
·
In case of engine failure with flaps
extended
64. Oxygen
generation for a particular group of masks begins when a mask is pulled toward
the seat. Oxygen generation lasts approximately _13_ minutes. PH 15.1.3
Oxygen
mask container doors will automatically open when the cabin altitude exceeds
14,000 feet. The doors can also be opened manually by pressing the MASK MAN ON pb on the oxygen overhead panel.
Illumination of the SYS ON light does not necessarily mean all masks have
deployed.
65. If one
pilot leaves their duty station above FL 250, the other pilot shall don their
oxygen mask for that period. After stowing the mask, how does one deactivate
the mask microphone? PH 15.1.2
Press
the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET pb
to deactivate the mask microphone.
66. Should
the flight crew discover a fuel imbalance in flight, what procedure should be
followed? May this procedure be performed from memory? QRH 32
No
- follow the QRH procedure:
·
FUEL X FEED
ON
·
CTR TK L+R XFR
OFF (A321)
·
On the lighter side (if A319/320
and in the center tank):
o
FUEL PUMPS
OFF
·
When fuel is balanced:
o
FUEL PUMPS
ON
o
CTR TK L+R XFR
ON (A321)
o
FUEL X FEED
OFF
Do
not apply this procedure if a fuel leak is suspected; accomplish FUEL LEAK
procedure.
67. The
least risk bomb location for the A320 is the ____. QRH 47
Center of the RH AFT cabin door.
68. While
ECAM actions / non-normal checklists are being completed, the captain should
assign the flying duties to the first officer unless conditions dictate
otherwise (True or False). PH 21.1.4, FOM 7.2.5
Unless
conditions dictate otherwise, the captain should assign the flying duties to
the F/O in accordance with the FOM. This allows the captain to direct full
attention to the accomplishment of the non-normal checklist and communications
with external resources. The captain should verbalize if it is desired for the
PF to temporarily handle ATC communications.
69.
Sometimes it is appropriate to interrupt ECAM in order to place a higher priority
on other tasks. Should it be necessary to stop ECAM actions for any reason, the
PF will state: HOLD ECAM. ECAM actions will
continue when the PF states: CONTINUE ECAM. PH 21.1.4
Descent
70. Wing anti
ice should be selected ON in anticipation of icing conditions or if airframe
icing is occurring. Normally, wing anti ice should be selected OFF at the FAF;
however, in severe icing conditions, it may be left on for landing. In this
case, when will the wing anti ice valves automatically close? PH 6.1.2
The
wing anti-ice valves close automatically:
·
Upon touchdown
·
If a leak is detected, or
·
If electrical power is lost
71. During the preliminary landing flow, the flight crew will
evaluate the need for autobrakes during landing. In
general, when should autobrakes be
used? PH 3.12
When landing on a short or contaminated runway or
when operating in low visibility, use the autobrake.
The captain will determine the type and level of braking to use. The following
is provided as selection criteria:
·
OFF To be used for bare and dry runways
where landing distance is not a factor
·
LO
To be used when moderate deceleration is required
·
MED to be used for contaminated runways
or when landing distance is a factor
·
MAX not to be used for landing
72. What is the maximum landing weight for the A319, A320, and A321
aircraft? PH
2.2.2
Maximum
Landing Weight
|
|
|
A319 |
137,800 lbs |
|
A320 |
142,200 lbs |
|
A321 |
171,500 lbs |
73. Should an
A320 experience a GREEN & BLUE hydraulic failure, the QRH will direct the
crew to multiply the landing distance CONFIG FULL by a factor of 1.5. If
the aircraft weighs 130,000 lbs., what is the required landing distance under
the following conditions: airport elevation 20, dry runway, 5 knot headwind,
CG 29.8%, and two reversers operative? QRH 51, A320 Perf-3
MULTIPLY
LDG DIST CONFIG FULL BY 1.5
APPR
SPD INCREMENT TO VREF (CONFIG FULL): 25
A320
CONFIGURATION FULL, LANDING DISTANCE WITHOUT AUTOBRAKE
Actual Landing Distance, GW 130000, Dry: 2,920
feet
Elevation: No correction
Headwind: No correction
CG 29.8: No correction
2 reversers operative: -2% correction (-2% = 1.00
0.02 = 0.98)
Corrected
landing distance = 2,920 X 1.5 X 0.98 = 4,292 feet
74. Assume
that the KLGA weather is 31010G16KT 2SM OVC7 8/6 A2985, landing RWY 22 BRAF.
What are the guidelines for operating with fair braking action and 16 knot
crosswind gusts? QRH OD-3
Crosswind less than or equal to 15 knots for
BRAF.
75. If the
First Officer is a Low Time First Officer, is he permitted to land at KLGA if
the weather is 31010KT 2SM 7OVC 8/6 A2985 landing RWY 22 with BRAF? FOM 4.14.7
No,
Braking action must be GOOD (see question 39).
76. The
Airbus A319/320 is designated an aircraft approach category C aircraft,
whereas the A321 is designated an aircraft approach category D aircraft.
FOM 5.10.3
77. What is
the maximum 90° crosswind component (including gusts) for CAT II/III
approaches? PH 2.3.1
|
Maximum Winds for Autoland |
|
|
Headwind |
30 knots |
|
Tailwind |
10 knots |
|
Crosswind other than CAT II/III |
20 knots |
|
Crosswind CAT II/III |
15 knots |
78. The flight crew is preparing for an approach to runway 36L at
KCLT, and low visibility approaches are in progress. Due to a MEL, the aircraft
capability is CAT 3 SINGLE. What type of autoland
approach may be conducted? What number will be entered in the DH field on the
PERF APPR page? QRH OD-2
·
CAT IIIA
·
50 ft DH
79. Due to
deteriorating weather at KLGA, the aircraft diverts to KEWR where the crosswind
component for the landing runway is less than 15 knots. Can a High Minimums
captain accomplish a CAT II approach to published CAT II minimums at KEWR? FOM
4.14.8
·
CAT II Yes (if approach coupler & autoland
is used, and crosswind component is 15 knots or less)
·
CAT III No
Approach
80. If an
EGPWS warning were activated while being vectored for an approach, what is the minimum
altitude to which the aircraft should climb? FOM 4.10.16
·
Within the terminal area Highest Minimum Safe Altitude
(MSA)
·
On an airway Minimum Enroute
Altitude (MEA) or Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)
·
Off airways (not within the terminal area) Grid Minimum
Off Route Altitude (Grid MORA)
81. Data
shows that many flap overspeed events occur during
the approach phase of flight when FLAPS 2 is selected. What is the maximum
flaps / slats extended speed on the A319/320 and the A321 for FLAPS 2? PH 2.4.1
|
FLAPS |
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
1 |
230 |
235 |
|
1+F |
215 |
225 |
|
2 |
200 |
215 |
|
3 |
185 |
195 |
|
FULL |
177 |
190 |
82. The
Airbus A319/320/321 is equipped with a Low Energy Warning Function. The aural warning
SPEED, SPEED, SPEED is triggered when the pilot needs to increase thrust in
order to achieve a positive flight path. When is this protection available? PH
14.1.11
Low energy warning is available in CONF 2, 3, or FULL, between 100
and 2,000 AGL when TOGA not selected. Produces aural SPEED SPEED SPEED when change in
flight path alone is insufficient to regain a positive flight path (Thrust must
be increased). During deceleration, the low-energy warning is triggered before
alpha-floor (unless alpha-floor is triggered by sidestick
deflection).
83. The Airbus Reactive Windshear
Detection function is available during takeoff from liftoff to 1,300
feet AGL, and on approach from 1.300 feet AGL to 50 feet AGL,
when aircraft configuration is 1 or greater. PH 14.1.11
Reactive Windshear
system: When a FAC detects windshear conditions, it
triggers a warning:
·
WINDSHEAR in red on both PFDs (for at least 15 seconds)
·
An aural warning, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR,
WINDSHEAR
The Predictive
Windshear system operates when the aircraft is
below 1,500 AGL. It scans the airspace within 5 nm forward of the aircraft for
windshears. When a windshear
is detected, a warning, caution, or advisory message appears on the PFD and
(depending on the range selected on the ND) an icon appears on the ND.
Predictive windshear warning and caution are
associated with an aural warning. During takeoff, both warnings and cautions
are available within 3 nm. Alerts are inhibited above 100 knots and up to 50.
During landing, alerts are inhibited below 50.
When the
WINDSHEAR switch is in AUTO, the Predictive Windshear
function is activated. Windshear areas are detected
by the antenna scanning below 2,300 RA, even if the transceiver selector is
set to OFF, and displayed on the ND if below 1,500.
Predictive windshear aural alerts have
priority over TCAS, EGPWS, and other FWC aural warnings. They are inhibited by windshear detection by FAC (Reactive) and stall warning
aural messages.
|
REACTIVE WINDSHEAR (FAC) |
|||
Alert
Level
|
Aural
Warning
|
PFD |
ND |
|
Warning |
WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR |
WINDSHEAR (Red) |
None |
|
PREDICTIVE WINDSHEAR (RADAR) |
|||
|
Alert Level |
Aural Warning |
PFD |
ND |
|
Warning (Approach) |
GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD |
W/S AHEAD (red) |
Windshear icon |
|
Warning (Takeoff) |
WINDSHEAR AHEAD (twice) |
W/S AHEAD (red) |
|
|
Caution |
MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY |
W/S AHEAD (amber) |
|
|
Advisory |
Nil |
Nil |
|
84. It is
not uncommon to intercept the localizer and glideslope
and be cleared for the ILS approach while still a considerable distance from
the runway. When it is prudent to delay configuring the aircraft, the Alternate
ILS Configuration will be used. At what point during the approach should the
flaps and gear be extended? PH 18.6.6
Alternate ILS Configuration Technique
|
|
|
Aircraft Distance with Reference |
Accomplish the Procedures Associated with: |
|
3 nm |
1½ dots (Gear Down) |
|
2 nm |
½ dot (Flaps 3) |
|
1 nm |
G/S Intercept (Flaps FULL) |
|
·
Configure the aircraft so as to arrive 3
nm prior to the published fix with FLAPS 2 ·
Distance is in relation to the published
fix at the LOM, ·
Applicable to ILS approaches only, not
RNAV approaches |
|
85. While
conducting an RNAV approach, the autopilot and flight director must be used;
however, a manually flown RNAV approach is permitted if ____. PH 18.6.12
·
IFR: AP and FD must be used. If both Autopilots have failed,
and no ILS approach is available, a manually flown FD RNAV approach is
permitted.
·
Weather ³ 1000 and 3: A manually
flown FD RNAV approach is permitted.
86. The
minimum height for autopilot disengagement during an RNAV approach is _DA_.
PH 2.13.1
Note:
When FINAL APP NAV modes are engaged, the AP will disengage at DA 50 (if
entered) or 400 AGL if no DA was entered. The FDs
will revert to basic modes (HDG, V/S).
87. During
an ASR approach, if the published MDA is 480', what value should be placed in the
PERF APPR MDA field in the MCDU and also used as an "adjusted" MDA?
PH 18.6.14
When
the published MDA is not a multiple of 100, round it up to the next 100 (e.g., 810 is rounded up to 900). Set this adjusted MDA in
the FCU and use this adjusted MDA for the minimum descent altitude. When an
intermediate step-down altitude(s) is designated, set the FCU to the step-down
altitude(s), then to the adjusted MDA.
88. Upon reaching the descent point on an ASR approach, the flight
crew should use what vertical mode to begin the descent to the MDA? PH 2.13.2
VERT/SPEED
The use of OPEN DES is prohibited inside the FAF, or
below 1000 AGL during a visual approach.
89. The FOM
establishes stabilized approach criteria with reference altitudes for IMC
(1000' AFE) and VMC (500' AFE) conditions. If these flight
parameters cannot be maintained, a go around must be initiated. What
parameters define a stabilized approach? FOM 5.10.10
Rate
of Descent
·
By 1,000 AFE, the descent rate is transitioning to no
greater than 1,000 fpm.
Flight
Parameters Below 1,000 AFE (IMC) or 500 AFE (VMC), the aircraft is:
·
On a proper flight path (visual or electronic) with only
small changes in pitch and heading required to maintain that path,
·
At a speed no less than VREF and not greater than
VREF + 20 (except when generated by Airbus FMGC) allowing for
transitory conditions with engines spooled up,
·
In trim, and
·
In an approved landing configuration
Execute
a go-around when the rate of descent is excessive or the flight parameters can not
be maintained.
90. With the speedbrakes extended,
what action will occur should the pilot select TOGA thrust? PH 12.1.3
Speedbrake
extension is inhibited if:
·
SEC 1 and 3 have failed
·
An elevator (L or R) has failed (only
spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
·
Angle of attack protection is active
·
Flaps are in configuration FULL (A319/320)
or
·
Flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL
(A321)
·
Thrust levers are above MCT position,
or
·
Alpha floor is active
If an inhibiting condition occurs, the speedbrakes
retract automatically. To regain control of the speedbrakes,
the inhibiting condition must be corrected and the SPEED BRAKE lever must be
moved to the RET position for ten seconds.
91. During approach, the Autoland
Warning Light is active below _200_ RA with the aircraft in the LAND
mode. What action should the crew take if this light begins flashing during an autoland approach? PH 14.1.6
The
following situations, when occurring below 200 RA with the aircraft in LAND
mode, trigger the flashing AUTOLAND red warning, and a triple-click warning:
·
Both APs OFF below 200 RA
·
Excessive deviation in LOC (1/4 dot above 15 RA) or GLIDE (1
dot above 100 RA). In addition, LOC and GLIDE scales flash on the PFD.
·
Loss of LOC signal (above 15 RA) or loss
of GLIDE signal (above 100). In addition, FD bars flash on the PFD. The
LAND mode remains engaged.
·
The difference between both radio altimeter indications is
greater than 15.
Go-Around
is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if
Landing/Go-Around
92. During a visual approach, if the flight director commands
will not be followed, the flight directors should be turned OFF. Should the crew need to execute a go around,
the flight directors will provide go-around guidance in SRS/GA TRK modes as
soon as the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA detent (True or False). PH 18.6.20
True.
When the thrust levers are advanced to TOGA:
·
FD bars provide go-around guidance. If FPV was on or FD
switched off, FD bars are automatically restored in SRS/GA TRK modes.
·
The FMA displays SRS and GA TRK in green.
93. The
thrust levers may be retarded to the CL detent during a go around when TOGA
thrust is not required. This would be accomplished only after verifying that
____ is annunciated on the FMA.
PH 18.6.20
MAN
TOGA | SRS | GA TRK
94. During
landing, as part of his scan, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD
and call "PITCH" if the pitch attitude reaches _10°_ (A319/320), or _7.5°_ (A321). PH 18.7.1
Do
not smack the tail.
95. The QRH
contains a checklist for loss of all braking. Assume that the aircraft is on the
landing rollout, autobrakes have not been used, and
there is no response after depressing the brake pedals. What pilot actions are
required? QRH 3
IF
AUTOBRAKE IS SELECTED:
·
BRAKE PEDALS
PRESS
IF
NO BRAKING AVAILABLE:
·
REV
MAX
·
BRAKE PEDALS
RELEASE
·
A/SKID & N/W STRG
OFF
·
BRAKE PEDALS
PRESS
·
MAX BRK PR
1000 PSI
IF
STILL NO BRAKING:
·
PARKING BRAKE
SHORT AND SUCCESSIVE APPLICATION
Taxiin/Parking
96. The
In-Range message shows that external power and air are available at the gate.
The anticipated gate time is 45 minutes. Should the crew start the APU during
arrival? FOM 5.12.8
When
the In-Range message indicates external air and power are available, they will
be hooked up. If external power is available but external air is not,
only start the APU if necessary for passenger comfort.
When
arriving at the gate with the APU operating, ensure the APU Bleed is turned off
prior to conditioned air connection..
97. The
residual ground speed check (ADIRS) on the Parking Checklist requires a report
in the ME-100 if the groundspeed is greater than or equal to _15_ knots
(the excessive deviation must be confirmed after two consecutive flights). If
the groundspeed is greater than or equal to _21_ knots, the IRU must be
removed. PH 3.16
Note:
The groundspeed check must be performed within the two minutes following
aircraft stop (Groundspeed resets to zero after two minutes).
98. Prior to
selecting ADIRS
OFF during the Securing Checklist, the flight crew should
____. PH 3.16
Wait
at least 3 minutes after the aircraft comes to a complete stop.
99. Prior to
selecting BATTERIES
OFF during the Securing Checklist, the flight crew should
wait ___. PH 3.16
Wait
until the APU flap is fully closed (about two minutes after APU AVAIL light
extinguishes) before switching the batteries OFF.
Note:
APU Flap closing may be verified on the APU ECAM page.
100. Opening
a cabin entry/service door from the outside with the escape slides armed will
____. PH 5.21.1
Each door is equipped with a single lane escape slide or
slide-raft. A slide-arming lever connects the slide to the floor brackets when
in the ARMED position. If the door is opened from the inside while the slide is
armed, the door is pneumatically assisted and the slide will inflate and deploy
automatically. The slide may be inflated manually if auto mode fails. Opening
the door from outside disarms the door and slide.
|
ADDITIONAL MEMORY
LIMITATIONS |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
OPERATION
LIMITS
Maximum 90 degree crosswind component (including gusts) for takeoff
and landing: 29 knots Maximum 90 degree crosswind component (including gusts) for CAT
II/III approaches: 15 knots Limiting tailwind component for takeoff and landing: 10 knots Maximum operating altitude: 39,000 feet SPEED
LIMITS Maximum operating airspeed (VMO): 350 KIAS Maximum operating mach number (MMO): 0.82M Maximum gear extension speed (VLO): 250 KIAS Maximum gear retraction speed (VLO): 220 KIAS Maximum gear extended speed (VLE): 280 KIAS/0.67M
ICE &
RAIN PROTECTION Engine Anti-ice ON when OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight): 10 degrees C
or below (except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below 40
degrees C SAT) Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent in icing
conditions (including temperatures below 40 degrees C SAT) FUEL
Maximum allowable fuel imbalance between left and right wing tanks
(outer + inner): 1,000 lbs HYDRAULICS,
BRAKES, & LANDING GEAR Maximum landing gear extension altitude: 25,000 feet FLIGHT
CONTROLS Maximum operating altitude with slats, or flaps and slats extended: 20,000
feet AUTO
FLIGHT SYSTEM Autopilot Engaged Minimum Height: 100 feet AGL After Takeoff
(if SRS is indicated)
POWERPLANT Minimum oil quantity for dispatch: 12.5 quarts |
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|
Updated 3/02/03, PHB Revision 18-03, FOM 11-03 |