A319/320/321 Type Rating Oral Study
Guide
Updated 10/09/2006
OPERATION LIMITS
|
Structural
Weight Limits |
A319 |
A320 |
A321 |
|
Maximum
Takeoff |
166,400
LBS |
169,700
LBS |
205,000
LBS |
|
Maximum
Landing |
137,800
LBS |
142,200
LBS |
171,500
LBS |
Maximum 90° crosswind
component (including gusts) for takeoff and landing: 29 knots
Maximum 90° crosswind
component (including gusts) for CAT II/III approaches: 15 knots
Limiting tailwind component for takeoff: 15 knots; landing: 10 knots
Maximum
operating altitude: 39,000 feet
SPEED LIMITS
Maximum
operating airspeed (VMO): 350 KIAS
Maximum
operating Mach number (MMO): 0.82M
Maximum gear
extension speed (VLO): 250 KIAS
Maximum gear
retraction speed (VLO): 220 KIAS
Maximum gear extended
speed (VLE): 280 KIAS/0.67M
|
Maximum Flaps/Slats Extended Speeds (VFE) |
|||||
|
FLAPS |
1 |
1+F |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
A319/320 VFE |
230 KIAS |
215 KIAS |
200 KIAS |
185 KIAS |
177 KIAS |
|
A321 VFE |
235 KIAS |
225 KIAS |
215 KIAS |
195 KIAS |
190 KIAS |
|
Turbulence
Penetration Speeds |
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
At or above
20,000 feet |
275 KIAS/.76M |
300 KIAS/.76M |
|
Below 20,000
feet |
250 KIAS |
270 KIAS |
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
Engine Anti-ice
ON when OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight): 10° C or below
(except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below 40° C SAT)
Engine anti-ice
must be ON prior to and during descent in icing conditions
(including temperatures below
40°
C SAT)
FUEL
|
Usable Fuel Tank Quantity |
||
|
|
A319/320 |
A321 |
|
Wing Tanks |
27,500 lb |
27,500 lb |
|
Center Tank |
14,500 lb |
14,500 lb |
|
ACT |
- |
10,500 lb |
|
TOTAL |
42,000 lb |
52,500 lb |
Operational maximum
fuel imbalance will be indicated by an ECAM advisory condition.
HYDRAULICS, BRAKES, &
LANDING GEAR
Maximum landing
gear extension altitude: 25,000 feet
FLIGHT CONTROLS
Maximum
operating altitude with slats, or flaps and slats extended: 20,000 feet
AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM
Autopilot
Engaged Minimum Height: 100 feet AGL After
Takeoff (if SRS is indicated)
|
Maximum Winds
for Automatic Approach, Landing, and Rollout |
|
|
Headwind |
30 knots |
|
Tailwind |
10 knots |
|
Crosswind other
than CAT II/III |
20 knots |
POWERPLANT
Minimum oil
quantity for dispatch: 13 quarts
·
1 Medical Kit
·
2 Escape ropes
·
3 fire items: axe, extinguisher, PBE
·
4 Life jackets
When you turn the mode Selectors to NAV, what
are you looking for on the panel?
Ensure that each ADIR has the ability to revert
to the batteries by observing the BAT light illuminating for several seconds.
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is
supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning
of a full alignment.
What does a flashing white align light mean?
·
IR alignment fault (aircraft moved
during alignment)
·
No present position entered within 10
minutes of NAV selection
·
Difference of 1° Lat/Long between shutdown and entered position
What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate?
The respective IR is in the Align mode.
What does it mean when the IR lights are
extinguished?
Alignment has been completed.
How do you fast align an IR?
Turn the IR mode selectors OFF momentarily (not
more than 5 seconds) and then back on.
What does steady illumination of the amber IR
FAULT light indicate?
A fault affects the respective IR.
What does flashing illumination of the amber IR
FAULT light indicate?
Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT
mode (you have lost the navigation portion).
What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference
part.
Does turning the IR to OFF also turn off the
ADR?
Yes
Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?
Yes
What would be missing on the on the Captains
PFD if IR 1 failed or was turned OFF?
Attitude and navigation information.
What action would recover the attitude and
navigation information?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching
panel ATT/HDG selector.
What information must be input when the IR is
in ATT?
Input Heading on the IR panel every 10 minutes.
With the loss of ADR 1, what
would be lost on the Captains PFD?
Airspeed and Altitude information
What would restore the lost altitude and
airspeed information?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching
Panel AIR DATA Selector.
How do you normally enter Present Position into
the IR?
·
Insert the Lat/Long on the MCDU INIT
page
·
Then press Align IRS
What does ELAC stand for?
Elevator Aileron Computer
How many ELACs on
the Airbus?
2
What are the functions of the ELAC?
·
Normal elevator and stabilizer control
·
Normal aileron control
·
Normal pitch and roll
·
Alternate pitch
·
Direct pitch and roll
·
Abnormal attitude
·
Aileron droop
·
Acquisition of autopilot orders
Under
·
Primary - Aileron control (roll)
·
Standby - Elevator / Stabilizer control
(backs up ELAC 2)
·
Provides 5° aileron droop
Under
·
Primary - Elevator / Stabilizer (pitch)
·
Standby - Aileron control (backs up ELAC
1)
What backs up ELAC 2?
ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1
What does SEC stand for?
Spoiler Elevator Computer
How many SECs are installed?
3
What functions are performed by the SECs?
·
Normal roll (by controlling the
spoilers)
·
Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1
& 3 only)
·
Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
·
Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
·
Direct roll
·
Abnormal attitude
Under
·
Primary Spoiler control (roll)
·
Standby Elevator / Stabilizer control
(SEC 1 & 2 back up the ELACs)
What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?
Spoiler control
What does FAC mean?
Flight Augmentation Computer
How many FACs are
installed?
2
What are the functions of the FACs?
·
Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw
damping)
·
Rudder trim
·
Rudder travel limit
·
Alternate yaw
Under
·
Yaw Control Damping
and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)
·
Airspeed Protection
Computation (Alpha Prot, high / low limits, maneuvering speed, PFD speed scale)
·
Windshear protection
·
Low Energy Warning
Protection (Speed, speed, speed)
Is full rudder deflection available during all
flight regimes?
No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function
of airspeed.
What is the computer and priority for the
Ailerons?
ELAC 1 -> ELAC 2
What is the computer and priority for the
Elevator and Stabilizer?
ELAC 2 -> ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1
How are the flight
control surfaces controlled and actuated?
All surfaces are controlled electrically and
actuated hydraulically.
When is automatic pitch
trim available?
In flight under
If the active elevator actuator fails, what
occurs?
Control is transferred the other actuator.
How is roll control
normally achieved?
1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing.
If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?
Yes, after slat extension.
Was Bill Gates involved in the Airbus flight
computer software development?
Lets hope not
What is checked on the EVAC panel during the
Originating check?
·
CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position
·
COMMAND pb is guarded
How would the flight crew command an
evacuation?
·
Press the EVAC COMMAND pb
·
Make a PA announcement
What buses are powered by the emergency
generator?
·
AC ESS and AC ESS SHED
·
DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
What does the RAT & EMER GEN red fault
light indicate?
·
Loss of AC GEN BUS 1 & 2,
·
Airspeed above 100 knots, and
·
Emergency generator not supplying AC
power
What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pb?
·
AUTO RAT will automatically extend if
AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed > 100 knots
·
MAN - extend the RAT at any time
How long does it take the RAT to extend and
provide power?
8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5
seconds to pressurize the Blue hydraulic system and power the EMER GEN).
What does the red FAULT light on the RAT &
EMER GEN pb indicate?
Normal AC is lost and the emergency generator
is not supplying power.
When should the red FAULT light on the RAT
& EMER GEN pb be expected?
During the 8 second RAT deployment and power
up.
What powers the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic power from the RAT.
What is the output of the Emergency Generator?
5 KVA
Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
Yes, from the HYD panel.
What is different about this deployment?
Blue HYD pressure only NO generator.
Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb?
No maintenance function only.
What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pb?
·
The GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the
white OFF light illuminates
·
AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the
BUS TIE CONTACTOR
·
GEN 1 powers 1 fuel pump in each wing
tank
When is this procedure used?
Smoke procedures
What does the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation
ducting.
Will there be any other indications of avionics
smoke?
ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the
EXTRACT and BLOWER pbs on
the VENTILATION panel.
Pressing the SYS pb
does what?
Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR
system.
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel?
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5.
Does this affect the TERRAIN mode?
No
What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?
Mode 4 Too Low Flaps inhibited for a Flap 3
landing.
When would you press the FLAP MODE pb?
To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with
flaps less than 3.
What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?
Mode 4 Too Low Flaps inhibited for a landing
with LESS THAN Flap 3.
If the TERR mode failed does it affect the
basic GPWS?
No
When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO?
·
On the ground, for 5 minutes after
electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
·
When at least 1 engine is operating
·
Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is
shut down
What does the CVR record?
ACPs and cockpit area microphone.
How do you record the F/As PAs?
ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and in the 3
oclock position.
How do you erase the RCDR tape?
·
RCDR ON
·
Aircraft on the ground
·
Parking
·
Press the CVR ERASE pb (2 seconds)
When does the Digital Flight Data Recorder
operate?
·
On the ground, for 5 minutes after
electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
·
When at least 1 engine is operating
·
Continuously in flight, whether or not
the engines are operating
·
Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is
shut down
What does the PASSENGER
The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has
been sent.
Does this mean all the passenger oxygen masks
have deployed?
No, the flight attendants may have to manually
deploy some of the masks.
When do the masks automatically deploy?
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.
What method is used to supply passenger cabin
supplemental oxygen?
Chemical generators
How do cabin occupants activate oxygen flow to
their masks?
Pull the mask toward the seat.
How long does the PAX oxygen last?
Approximately 13 minutes.
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
In a single high-pressure cylinder.
Above what altitude will the
crew oxygen masks provide 100% oxygen regardless of the position of the N/100%
selector?
35,000 feet
What happens during the preflight when you push
to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
It opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply
low-pressure crew oxygen.
What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM?
The OXY would change from amber to green.
What indication would you have of a crew oxygen
cylinder thermal discharge?
The green disk on the lower left side of the
forward fuselage would be missing.
Will the crew oxygen mask microphone
automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?
No, you must press the RESET slide switch.
How do you call a mechanic?
Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates
a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.
How do you call the forward flight attendant?
·
Press the FWD button
·
Red light appears on the fwd area Call
Panel
·
CAPT CALL appears on the FWD F/A
indication panel
·
A green light illuminates
·
A low level chime sounds through the fwd
cabin loudspeaker
What happens when you press the EMER pb?
·
Pink light flashes at all area Call
Panels
·
EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant
indication panels
·
High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds
throughout the cabin loudspeakers
What happens when the F/As initiate an
emergency call?
·
The white
·
The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
·
3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit
·
System resets when the attendant hangs
up the relevant systems
How do you command an emergency evacuation?
Press the COMMAND EVAC pb
and make a PA.
What is the maximum windshield wiper operation
speed?
230 knots
The RAIN RPLNT pb when
pressed does what?
Timer applies a measured quantity of rain
repellent to the windshield.
When will the RAIN RPLNT pb
not work?
On the ground with the engines stopped.
If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches
are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after
takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish
when the landing gear is retracted.
What is the correct position for the NAV &
LOGO switch?
Position 2
When does the LOGO light illuminate with the switch
in 2?
Main landing gear strut compression or slat
extension.
Are the 1 and 2 positions connected to a single
bulb?
No, they are separate bulbs.
What position should the STROBE switch be in
during preflight?
AUTO
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the main landing gear strut is not
compressed.
What does the APU MASTER SW pb
to ON do?
·
Electrically powers the APU system (Blue
ON light in pb)
·
ECB performs a power up test
·
APU ECAM page appears (if EXT or ENG GEN
AC power is available)
·
APU air intake flap opens
·
APU fuel isolation valve opens
·
APU fuel pump operates (if no tank pumps
are on)
What happens when you push the APU START pb?
·
Blue ON light illuminates
·
When APU air intake flap opens the starter
is energized
·
Ignition is turned ON 1.5 seconds after
starter is energized
·
Starter is de-energized and ignition
turned OFF at 55% N
·
Blue ON light in START pb extinguishes
·
Green AVAIL light illuminates 2 seconds
after 95% N or above 99.5% N
·
APU page disappears from the ECAM 10
seconds later
With the APU running and supplying bleed air,
how do you shut it down?
·
APU BLEED pb OFF
·
APU MASTER SW OFF
·
APU will cool down and then shut down
What does the green AVAIL light on the APU
START pb indicate?
The APU is available to provide electrical
power and/or bleed air.
With the APU green AVAIL light
ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the
aircraft?
APU
If the APU is running, is it necessary to
manually select APU BLEED OFF prior to APU shutdown?
No. When the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, the
bleed air valve is closed and the APU is allowed to cool prior to shutdown.
During the cool down cycle can you still use
the APU?
Yes, press the APU MASTER SW pb.
The APU generator can supply 100% load to what
altitude?
25,000 feet
The APU can supply bleed air to what altitude?
20,000 feet
An amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pb indicates?
An APU auto shutdown has occurred.
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED
pb mean?
An APU bleed leak.
Does APU air or electric have priority?
Electric
What signs illuminate when you turn the NO PED
(NO SMOKING) switch to ON?
·
NO Personal Electronic Device (PED)
·
EXIT signs
·
Also sounds a low tone chime
Do we use the AUTO position?
No
How come?
Because
When will the EXIT signs automatically
illuminate?
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and
·
Normal AC power is lost
·
DC SHED ESS BUS not powered
·
Cabin altitude is excessive (above
11,300 feet)
·
NO PED (SMOKING) signs illuminated
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft
electrical power fails?
·
Floor proximity emergency escape path
marking system
·
Overhead emergency lighting
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch
is placed to ON?
·
Overhead emergency lighting
·
Floor proximity emergency escape path
marking system
·
EXIT lights
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is
placed to OFF?
·
All lights OFF
·
Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
What flight deck lighting is available if
normal electrical power is lost?
·
Captains Instrument Panel
·
Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch
set in DIM or BRT)
·
Standby Compass
Is the engine anti-ice part of the normal
pneumatic system?
No it is a separate system independent of the
pneumatic ducting.
When do you use engine anti-ice?
·
When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10° C or below with visible moisture present
·
Prior to and during descent in icing conditions
(including temperatures below 40° C SAT)
What is the exception to the above rule?
During climb
and cruise when the temperature is below 40° C SAT
What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pb indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you
see?
·
Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
·
ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
·
ECAM: IGNITION
·
N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1
indicator)
·
N1 idle is increased
What should you do if there is significant
engine vibration due to ice?
Increase N1 to 70% for a minimum of 15 seconds
prior to selecting a higher thrust.
With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent
affected?
Yes, because idle thrust is increased.
Can you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?
No
What happens if you turn the switch on the
ground?
The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30
second test.
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats.
When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically
close?
·
On landing
·
Bleed leak detected
·
Loss of electrical power
Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti-ice?
No
What does the amber FAULT light in the WING
ANTI ICE pb indicate?
·
Position of the anti-icing control valve
is not in the required position
·
Low pressure is detected
In what position do the Wing and Engine
Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
·
Wing valves CLOSE
·
Engine valves OPEN
Which exterior aircraft
components utilize electrical heating?
·
Cockpit windshields and sliding side windows
·
AOA, TAT, pitot probes, and static
ports
·
Waste water drain masts
On the ground, with the
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO, when are the probe and
mast heaters activated?
·
LOW with at least one engine running
(except the TAT probe)
·
HIGH is automatically selected after
takeoff
What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb do?
Manually activates the probe, drain mast, and
window heaters.
With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb
ON will the heaters automatically switch to AUTO?
No
What does the DITCHING pb do?
Closes all valves below the water line.
Which valves will a close signal be sent to (CARPO)?
·
Cargo (aft) isolation
valve (if installed)
·
Avionics Inlet and
Extract valves
·
Ram air inlet
·
Pack Flow Control
valves
·
Outflow valve (only if
in AUTO mode)
Will the DITCHING pb
always close the outflow valve?
Not if the outflow valve is under manual
control.
Can the pilot control the outflow valve?
Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN
V/S CTL switch.
Approximately what rate of cabin change does 1
click of the MAN V/S CTL switch produce?
50 FPM
How many controllers are in the pressurization
system?
2, only one is used at a time and they swap
roles after each landing.
How do you manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then
back to AUTO
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
The LDG ELEV selector in the AUTO position does
what?
The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to
construct an optimized pressurization schedule.
Where does the pressurization system obtain the
landing elevation from?
FMGC database
When out of the AUTO position, what is
different?
The pressurization system uses the manually
selected landing elevation.
What is the maximum cabin rate of descent with
the pressurization in AUTO?
750 FPM
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin
differential pressure?
2 pressure relief valves.
How many outflow valve motors are installed?
3 one for each
automatic controller and one for manual control.
The pneumatic system is monitored and
controlled by?
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
Yes, they are interconnected. If BMC 1 fails:
·
APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not
monitored
·
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
On the ECAM Bleed page, how do you tell if GND
HP air supply is connected?
The GND unit temperature and pressure are
indicated on the ECAM BLEED PRECOOLER #1
The PACK FLOW selector has LO, NORM, and HI
positions (A319/320). What does this allow us to do?
Select pack flow rates representing LO 80%,
NORM 100%, and HIGH 120% of NORM according to number of pax and ambient
conditions.
What flow rate is automatically selected when
APU bleed air is in use or during single pack operation?
·
HI (A319/320)
·
NORM (A321)
If the engine bleed air in-flight is too low
what will occur?
Engine speed is automatically increased to
provide adequate bleed air pressure.
What would cause an amber
PACK FAULT light to illuminate (PCS)?
·
Pack outlet overheat
·
Compressor outlet
overheat
·
Switch position
disagreement with pack flow control valve
Note: FAULT light will be illuminated during
preflight as no bleed air is supplied.
What does the amber FAULT light in the APU
BLEED pb indicate?
Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes)
What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG
BLEED pb (ASOLO)?
·
APU bleed valve open
and engine bleed valve not closed
·
Engine Start with bleed valve not
closed
·
Overpressure
downstream of the bleed valve
·
Leak (low pressure)
·
Overheat
What are the two functions of the engine bleed
valves?
·
Pressure regulation
·
Shut off valves
What is the RAM AIR pb
used for?
·
Smoke removal in cabin
·
Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack
failure
At what cabin differential
pressure does the RAM AIR valve open?
1 PSI DP or less.
What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the
X-BLEED switch is in AUTO?
·
When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the
X-Bleed valve is open
·
When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the
X-Bleed valve is closed
·
X-Bleed also CLOSES for wing, pylon, or
APU duct leak (except during engine start)
What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to
automatically close?
·
Upstream pressure below minimum
·
Compressor outlet overheat
·
Engine start sequence
·
Engine FIRE pb on the related side
pressed
·
DITCH pb is selected
What does the amber HOT AIR FAULT light
indicate?
Duct overheat. The Hot Air and Trim Air valves close automatically.
What is the function of the HOT AIR pb?
Controls the hot air pressure regulating
valves which controls the flow of hot air to the trim air valves. This hot air is mixed with the pack-conditioned air for zone
temperature control.
How many Zone Controllers are there?
1 (2 channels Primary/Secondary)
How many Pack Controllers?
2 (2 channels each Primary/Secondary)
Describe how the air
conditioning system controls the temperature in each zone.
·
Pack output temperature regulation is
determined by the zone requiring the coldest air
·
Hot air is added to the individual zones
by the trim air valves to maintain the desired zone temperatures
If the Zone Controller Primary
channel fails how are the Packs controlled?
·
COCKPIT selector controls Pack 1
·
Average of FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN
selectors controls Pack 2, fixed at 76° F
If both channels in the Zone Controller fail,
what occurs?
Pack temperatures will default to 68° F from Pack 1, and 50° F from pack 2.
If both channels of a pack controller fail, what
will occur?
Pack outlet temperature is fixed at 59° F.
If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what
occurs?
The affected pack will operate as a heat
exchanger.
What effect will the engine start sequence have
on the pack flow control valves?
The pack flow control valve will close
automatically.
What causes the pack flow control valve to
close?
·
Upstream pressure below minimum
·
Compressor outlet overheat
·
During engine start
·
FIRE pb on that side pressed
·
DITCHING pb pressed
After engine start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
APU Bleed
When does the Lav/Galley
Extract Fan operate?
Continuously when electrical power is
available.
If the Lav/Galley
Extract Fan fails, what occurs?
Cabin temperature defaults to a set value.
When performing the Originating checklist, what
is the minimum
25.5 Volts
What do you do if it is below 25.5V?
Select BATT pbs to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft.
How long will it take to charge the batteries?
20 minutes
During the Originating Checklist what are we
looking for on the ELEC panel BAT check?
·
ECAM ELEC page select
·
BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
·
Check BATT charge current is < 60
amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
Will the batteries completely drain if you
leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed?
No.
How is the
DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pb indicate?
At least 1 generator load is above 100% rated
output.
How does the GALLEY pb work in AUTO?
Sheds main galley (A319/320), all galleys
(A321), and in-seat power supply if:
·
Only 1 generator (APU or Engine) is
available in FLIGHT, or
·
Only 1 ENGINE generator is available on
the GROUND
What is the max continuous load rating of the
engine and APU generators?
90 KVA
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb indicate?
·
A fault is detected by the GCU, and/or
·
The generator line contactor is open
When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT
light illuminated?
Prior to engine start
What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
The generator line contactor is open.
When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
·
APU speed too low
·
Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG
Generator takes over
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO
position?
Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close
automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2:
·
Allows a single source to power the
entire system
·
Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT
PWR to the system
·
Inhibits multiple sources connected
simultaneously
What does IDG stand for?
Integrated Drive Generator
What is the function of the IDG?
Converts variable engine speed to
constant speed for optimum generator operation.
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?
·
Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 <
14%)
·
Oil outlet temperature overheat
·
Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
What precautions must you take
when disconnecting an IDG?
·
Do not disconnect when the engine is not
operating or windmilling
·
Do not hold button longer than 3 seconds
·
Only maintenance personnel can reconnect
the IDG
What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pb in the normal position?
If AC BUS 1 is lost AC BUS 2 automatically
feeds the AC ESS BUS
What does the AC ESS FEED pb
white ALT light indicate?
The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2.
What is the purpose of the static inverter?
To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the
battery when operating in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.
When is the battery check performed?
During the Originating Check of the ELEC
panel.
How is the
·
Select ECAM ELEC page
·
Switch BAT 1 & 2 OFF, then ON
·
Check charging current below 60 amps and
decreasing within 10 seconds
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
What are the 3 times the batteries are
connected to the
·
APU start
·
·
AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and
airspeed below 100 knots
What is the priority sequence for electrical
power?
·
1. Engine Generators
·
2. EXT PWR
·
3. APU Generator
·
4. RAT Emergency Generator
·
5. Batteries
With the APU green AVAIL light
ON and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is powering
the aircraft?
EXT PWR
What is the significance of the green collared
circuit breakers on the flight deck?
·
Green Monitored by ECAM system
·
Red Wing tip brake C/B
·
Yellow pulled in compliance with
prescribed procedure on battery power only
What is the normal in-flight
fuel management scheme?
Use center tank first, then the wing tanks.
How many fuel pumps are
installed (A319/320)?
·
2 in each wing tank
·
2 in center tank
·
1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps
are off
With full fuel, when do the
center tank fuel pumps operate (A319/320)?
·
For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are
started (if slats are UP will continue to run)
·
After slat retraction
·
Continue to run for 5 minutes until the
center tank is empty or slats are extended
What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL
FAULT light?
·
Failure of the AUTO mode
·
Center tank contains more than 550 lb and
either main tank has less than 11,000 lb
What is the approximate fuel capacity of each
outer fuel tank (A319/320)?
1,560 lb
When do the main tank outer cells drain into
the inner tanks (A319/320)?
When the inner tank quantity reaches
1,650 lb.
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lb, what
happens to the other transfer valve (A319/320)?
All 4 transfer valves open.
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel
transfer valves closed?
Automatically at the next refueling
operation.
How is the IDG cooled?
By fuel from the HP fuel pump drawn in from the
fuel manifold and then returned to its respective
outer tank. When full the outer tank spills over to the inner tank.
If the IDG return fuel fills the
wing tanks, what occurs?
The center tank pumps turn off until the wing
tank quantity reduces by 1,100 lb.
What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP
pb indicate?
Low fuel delivery pressure
If the wing tank pumps fail, is suction feeding
possible?
Yes only from the inner wing tank cells.
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to
another?
Only during ground refueling.
With full wing fuel what prevents the IDG fuel
from overflowing the wings?
Separate full level switches.
Why are
the outer wing tanks drained last?
Structural wing bending moment relief.
When does the APU fuel pump run?
When the wing or center tank pumps are
not on.
What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM
indicate?
The refueling control panel door is not closed.
What does an amber boxed
ECAM FOB indicate?
Some fuel is unusable.
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all
hydraulic systems?
No you must have at least one (scary, huh?)
What occurs when you press the RAT
The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE
hydraulic system.
Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?
Nope
How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN
system?
·
1 Engine
·
1 PTU
How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE
system?
·
1 Electric
·
1 RAT
How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW
system?
·
1 Engine
·
1 Electric
·
1 PTU
·
1 Hand pump
When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?
·
After the first engine is started
·
If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the
MAINTENANCE panel has been pressed with no engine running
What is normal system hydraulic pressure?
3000 PSI
Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss
of BLUE pressure?
No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN
ON pb.
If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should
you do?
Obtain ground clearance, then turn ON the
YELLOW ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator.
When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO?
·
With a difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW
pressure
·
After first engine start until second engine is started
When is the PTU inhibited?
·
PTU pb OFF
·
First Engine start
·
Parking brake is ON and only one ENG
MASTER switch is ON
·
NWS in towing position and parking brake
ON
·
Cargo door operation
If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the
PTU for a Reservoir Overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
No, not until the overheat
subsides.
If the FAULT light in the PTU pb is ON, are there any other indications on the HYD Panel?
Yes also a FAULT light illuminated in the
respective ENG PUMP pb.
Can the YELLOW ELEC PUMP run the PTU?
Yes, which will then
pressurize the Green hydraulic system.
Does operating the cargo door run the PTU?
No, it is inhibited.
Name several items that run from only the GREEN
system?
·
Landing gear
·
Nosewheel steering
·
Normal Brakes
·
Slats and flaps
·
#1 Thrust reverser
Name several items that run from only the
YELLOW system?
·
Alternate Brakes
·
Parking Brake
·
Cargo doors
·
#2 Thrust reverser
What does an amber FAULT light in the PTU pb indicate (OLL)?
·
Overtemp in reservoir
·
Low air pressure in the
reservoir
·
Low quantity in the
reservoir
What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pb indicate (POLL)?
·
Pump pressure low
·
Overtemp in reservoir
·
Low air pressure in
the reservoir
·
Low quantity in the
reservoir
What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW
ELEC PUMP pb indicate (POLLO)?
·
Pump pressure low
·
Overtemp in reservoir
·
Low air pressure in
the reservoir
·
Low quantity in the
reservoir
·
Pump Overheat
Where are the HYD FIRE SHUTOFF VALVES located?
Between the reservoirs and the ENG
pumps.
What is the function of the hydraulic priority
valves?
Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats, landing
gear, NW steering, and emergency generator is cut off if pressure drops below a
predetermined value.
What is the purpose of the hand pump?
To provide Yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo
door operation.
Where are the engine
fire loops installed?
·
Pylon nacelle
·
Engine core
·
Fan section
What happens if both fire loops fail?
If the failure of both loops occurs within 5
seconds of each other, a FIRE warning will be issued.
What does an amber
DISCH light mean?
The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its
pressure.
How many fire extinguishers are provided for
each engine?
2
List the actions that occur when
an ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed.
·
1 Silences the aural fire warning
·
2 Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
·
1 Closes the hydraulic fire valve
·
2 - Closes the LP fuel and engine fuel
return valves
·
1 Deactivates the engine generator
·
2 - Closes the pack flow control and
engine bleed valves
What occurs when you press the
TEST pb on the ENGINE FIRE panel?
·
CRC sounds
·
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
·
ENG FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
·
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2)
·
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
·
FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates
(1)
How many fire extinguishers are provided for
the APU?
1
List the actions that occur when
the APU FIRE pb is pressed.
·
1 Silences the aural fire warning
·
1 Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
·
2 - Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts
OFF the APU fuel pump
·
1 Deactivates the APU generator
·
2 - Closes the APU bleed and crossfeed valves
What occurs when you press the
APU FIRE TEST pb?
·
CRC sounds
·
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
·
APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
·
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
·
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically
discharge if a fire is detected in ground?
Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and
the APU fire extinguisher will discharge.
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically
discharge if a fire is detected in flight?
No
What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for?
Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1
or 2 fails.
Do the pilots use the Maintenance panel?
No
If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pb what would occur?
The APU will shut down.
What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR
amber FAULT light indicate?
Duct overheat
What does the CARGO HEAT AFT ISOL
VALVE amber FAULT light indicate?
Valve disagreement of inlet or outlet valve
How many fire extinguishers are provided for
the cargo compartments?
1 bottle, which can be discharged to
either compartment.
What are the indications when you test the
CARGO SMOKE (2,2,2,2,2)?
·
2 amber DISCH lights
illuminate
·
2 red SMOKE lights
illuminate
·
2 MASTER WARNING
lights with CRC
·
2 CARGO SMOKE lines on
the ECAM
·
Test runs TWICE to check both
SDCU channels
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT
pb indicate?
·
Both channels detect smoke, or
·
One channel faulty and the other detects
smoke
How many smoke detectors are
there?
·
A319/320 2 fwd, 2 aft
·
A321 4 fwd, 2 aft
With a CARGO SMOKE warning what happens to the
Isolation Valve and Extract Fan?
·
Isolation Valve closes
·
Extract Fan stops
What is the purpose of the CABIN
FANS?
To re-circulate cabin air to the mixing chamber and
then back to the cabin.
With BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in AUTO how does the system
operate?
·
Ground system is in OPEN configuration
·
Flight system is in CLOSED
configuration
·
Intermediate Closed except Extract
Valve is partially open
With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in OVRD, what are the
positions of the INLET and EXTRACT valves?
·
INLET valve CLOSED
·
EXTRACT valve OPEN
What fan is OFF in the above situation?
·
BLOWER fan OFF
·
EXTRACT fan ON
Is Air Conditioning ever introduced into the
Avionics Compartment?
Yes In the SMOKE configuration or Abnormal configuration.
Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in
flight?
Yes during SMOKE configuration.
What does a FAULT light on the BLOWER pb indicate?
·
SMOKE Warning is activated
·
Computer power supply failure
·
Low Blower pressure
·
Duct overheat
What does a FAULT light on the EXTRACT pb indicate?
·
SMOKE Warning is activated
·
Computer power supply failure
·
Low Extract pressure
With 2 FAULT lights on the
VENTILATION panel are there any other indications?
Yes The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb.
What are the primary differences between a
manual and a normal automatic start?
·
The FADEC provides full monitoring
during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures
to follow in the event of a start fault
·
Automatic start interruption and
auto-crank are not available
With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what
occurs when you press the ENG MAN START pb?
·
The start valve opens
·
Both pack flow control valves close
Will the start valve then automatically close?
Yes, at 50% N2.
When would you use a manual start?
·
After a failed auto start (stall, EGT overlimit, no N1 rotation, hung start)
·
A mature engine
·
Hot/high conditions
·
Low starting air pressure
·
Tail wind
What does the red
Below 200 feet RA:
·
Excessive deviation (LOC or G/S)
·
Loss of both autopilots
·
Loss of LOC or G/S signals
·
Difference of 15 feet between the RAs
What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK
PRIORITY light mean?
It illuminates in front of the pilot losing
authority.
How would you regain control?
·
The last pilot to press the pb on the
sidestick will have authority
·
An aural Priority Left or Priority
Right will sound
What does the flashing green
CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?
Both sidesticks have
been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority.
What happens when both pilots make an input
simultaneously on the sidesticks?
·
The inputs are algebraically summed up to
the normal limits
·
An aural Dual Input will sound
·
Green CAPT and F/O lights will
illuminate
What is the function of the LOC pb?
Arms, engages, or disengages the LOC mode
When do you press the APPR button?
When cleared for the approach.
After pressing the APPR button, what do you
check for?
·
ILS Blue LOC and GS in FMA
·
RNAV APP NAV and FINAL
What is the function of the Flight Control
Unit?
·
Permits short term interface between the
pilot and FMGS
·
Allows temporary modification of any
flight parameter (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)
·
Used to select operational modes of the
autopilots, flight directors, and A/THR system
What do dashes in the FCU display windows along
with the adjacent white dot indicate?
FMGS Managed Guidance is in use
How is Selected Guidance engaged?
Pull the appropriate selector knob.
How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR
inputs?
Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA
Will the FCU Altitude window ever display
dashes?
No. Pilot selected altitude ill always be
displayed.
What does each column mean on the PFD?
A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPROACH
CAPABILIY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
How is the crew made
aware of mode changes on the FMA?
A white box is temporarily displayed around the
new indication.
How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
·
Blue armed
·
Magenta armed because of a constraint
·
Green - engaged
When is the side stick position indication icon
(white cross) displayed?
·
Displayed when the first engine is
started
·
Disappears at liftoff
What would the large red arrowheads indicate?
Pitch attitude of +30°
After you input the destination and ILS
information into the MCDU, what do you check for?
·
After the ILS pb is pressed, green light
·
ILS frequency and course on PFD
·
ILS identifier once identified
·
LOC and GS scales displayed on PFD
What does the MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in red mean?
You are in Mechanical Backup.
What does USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM in amber mean?
You are in Direct Law
What are the pitch and roll angle limits
indicated by the green = signs?
·
Pitch: +30° up/-15° down
·
Roll: +/- 67°
How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?
·
Amber Xs at the pitch (30° UP/15° DN) and bank (67°) limits
·
Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the
airspeed scale
When would the sideslip index change from
yellow to blue?
In case of an engine failure during
takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue beta target.
What does the yellow speed trend line on the
airspeed display indicate?
The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds
if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.
What is the difference between the magenta and
blue target airspeeds?
·
Magenta Managed speed computed by the
FMGC
·
Blue Selected speed on the FCU
What is VLS and how is it displayed?
·
Represents lowest selectable speed
providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed
·
Defined by the top of the amber strip
along the airspeed scale
·
In approach mode is equivalent to VREF
What speed does VMAX represent and how is it
displayed?
·
It is the lowest of VMO/MMO,
VLE, or VFE
·
Defined by the bottom of a red and black
strip along the speed scale
What is Green Dot speed?
·
Engine out operating speed in clean
configuration
·
Appears when the aircraft is in the
clean configuration
·
Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag
ratio
What is Ground Speed Mini?
·
Based on a calculated groundspeed at the
runway
·
Protects against actual groundspeed
dropping below this calculated groundspeed
What does it mean when you see the magenta
target airspeed triangle above VAPP on approach?
Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a
higher headwind component at your present location than what was calculated at
the runway.
Is this protection available in Selected speed?
No Managed speed only
What would be indicated if the altitude window
changed from yellow to amber?
The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected
altitude or flight level.
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited
in flight?
·
When slats are extended with the landing
gear down
·
On approach after glide slope capture
What does it mean when the altitude digits
change from green to amber?
The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH
entered into the FMGC.
When is Radio Height displayed on the PFD?
Below 2,500 feet
Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed
where?
·
Captains PFD
·
F/Os ND
What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the
bottom of the PFD?
Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the
ILS display is not selected.
What displays or modes are available on the ND?
·
Rose ILS
·
Rose VOR
·
Rose NAV
·
ARC
·
PLAN
What colors are used to represent the various
displayed flight plans?
·
Active continuous green line
·
Secondary continuous white line
·
Temporary dashed yellow line
·
Alternate dashed blue line
·
Missed approach continuous blue line
Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are
displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?
·
Top of Descent Always white (never
armed)
·
Continue Descent Blue indicates armed,
white indicates NOT armed
What color does each altitude constraint circle
represent?
·
White constraint is not taken into
account
·
Magenta constraint is predicted to be
satisfied
·
Amber constraint is predicted to be
missed
If mode range data
fails what should you expect to see on the ND?
ROSE NAV and 80 nm range.
Where is VOR data displayed?
Both NDs and the DDRMI
What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?
·
WARNINGS Associated with the red
MASTER WARN light, CRC, and require immediate action
·
CAUTIONS Associated with the amber
MASTER CAUT light, single chime, and require crew awareness
·
ALERTS Associated with amber E/WD
message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they
be presented to the crew?
A level 3 Warning has priority over a level 2
Caution which has priority over a level 1 Alert.
What types of failures are presented to the
crew?
·
Independent Failure affecting an
isolated system/item without degrading other systems/items
·
Primary Failure of a system/item that
affects the use of other systems/items
·
Secondary Loss of a system/item
resulting from a primary failure
Which part of the E/WD would the crew find
indication of Primary failures?
On the lower left portion of the screen.
What indication does the E/WD provide for
secondary failures?
Secondary failures are displayed on the lower
right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by an *.
What does the appearance of a green arrow
indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen indicate?
Information has overflowed off the screen and
the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pb on the
ECAM panel.
What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG
INHIBIT indicate?
Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to
avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight.
What types of warnings are NOT inhibited during
takeoff?
·
ENGINE FIRE
·
APU FIRE
·
ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT DOWN)
·
ENG OIL LO PR
·
L+R EVEV FAULT
·
A/P OFF
·
CONFIG
·
FWC 1+2 FAULT
What are the Takeoff Configuration
Warnings/Cautions?
·
SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN
·
PITCH TRIM NOT IN
·
SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED
·
SIDESTICK FAULT
·
HOT BRAKES
·
DOOR NOT CLOSED
·
PARK BRAKE ON
·
FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrust levers
in TOGA detent)
When does the Takeoff Memo appear?
·
2 minutes after the 2nd
engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pb is pressed with one engine
·
Memo is removed when takeoff power is
applied
When does the Landing Memo appear?
·
Below 2,000 RA with gear down or 800
RA with gear up.
·
Below 2,000 feet RA regardless of gear
position (aircraft with new FWC)
·
Memo disappears after touchdown (80
knots)
In general, when are the system pages
automatically displayed on the SD?
·
Relative to the current phase of flight,
or
·
When a system malfunction is detected
When is a STATUS page displayed?
·
After a failure is displayed on the SD
and all failure items have been cleared
·
Display will reappear when the slats are
extended
What does the boxed
STS indicate when displayed on the SD?
·
The STATUS page holds messages other
than CANCELLED CAUTIONS
·
Flashes after engine shutdown to alert
maintenance of any other applicable messages
What is the function of the 2 Landing Gear
Control and Interface Units (LGCIU)?
·
Provide sequencing, operation,
monitoring, and indications for the landing gear
·
Provide aircraft In Flight or On the Ground
signals to other aircraft systems
What hydraulic system powers the
landing gear and doors.
Green
After Emergency Landing Gear Gravity Extension,
what other system is affected?
Nose wheel steering will be inoperative
Is normal hydraulic power available to the gear
after Emergency Landing Gear Gravity Extension?
No
When does the red arrow in the LND panel
illuminate?
Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the
landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.
What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and
you place the Landing Gear lever to DOWN?
Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear
system when airspeed is above 260 knots.
What do the red UNLK lights indicate?
The landing gear is not locked in the selected
position.
What controls the LDG GEAR lights?
LGCIU 1
If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?
Yes, as long as it is still powered.
What controls and manages all braking
functions?
The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
What happens when you switch the A/SKID &
N/W STRG to OFF?
·
Lose Nosewheel steering
·
Braking is powered by the Yellow system
·
Anti-skid is deactivated
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the
brakes?
·
Normal brakes Green
·
Alternate brakes Yellow backed up by a
hydraulic accumulator
When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if
armed?
When the ground spoilers deploy.
What is the difference between
LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
·
LOW progressive pressure applied to
brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 5.6 FPS
·
MED - progressive pressure applied to
brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 9.8 FPS
What does the AUTO BRK green
DECEL light indicate?
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of
the selected rate.
What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?
MAX
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK
to activate on a RTO?
·
Airspeed above 72 knots, and
·
Thrust Levers at IDLE, and
·
Ground spoiler extension
If you lose Green hydraulic pressure will you
have Auto Brakes?
No, not with the Alternate Brake system
Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes?
Yes, if certain conditions are met
With spoilers not armed will the
spoilers deploy for an RTO?
Yes when at least one engine is in reverse.
How many brake applications are available with
accumulator pressure?
Approximately 7 full applications
What is the maximum brake temperature for
takeoff?
300° C
When should the brake fans be selected to ON?
ON when brake temperature exceeds 300° C and OFF when the temperature decreases to
250° C.
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple
indicator indicate?
·
Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to
the left and right brakes
·
Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
How do you perform the brake check during
initial taxi?
Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft
slows, and check the brake pressure on the triple indicator is zero, indicating
the Green hydraulic system has taken over.
What computers feed data to the six display
units?
3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
What does each of the DMCs
normally supply?
·
DMC 1 Captain
·
DMC 2 F/O PFD, ND, lower ECAM DU
·
DMC 3 Backup
How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
A diagonal line will be displayed in the
respective EFIS/ECAM display unit.
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the
lower ECAM display.
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how
can you display E/WD information?
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to
transfer the SD to either ND.
If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched to OFF
what would occur?
The E/WD display would automatically transfer
to the lower display.
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen,
how else can you view SD information?
Press and hold the appropriate system button on
the ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view.
How long will this information be available?
30 seconds
What does the ALL pb
do?
·
Displays ALL the system pages
successively in 1-second intervals when held down
·
Release the pb to maintain display of
the selected page
What does pressing the RCL pb?
·
Allows you to recall any warning or caution
messages that the activation of the CLR pb or flight phase inhibition may have
suppressed
·
If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD
will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb
If you press the STS pb
and the system has no STATUS messages what will be displayed?
If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which
buttons are still functional?
·
EMER CANC
·
ALL
·
CLR
·
STS
·
RCL
What does the EMER CANC do?
·
Cancels the current Level 1 or 2 warning
for the remainder of the flight
·
Cancels the current Level 3 warning for
that occurrence
What do you look for on the FHED
check?
·
Fuel fuel quantity,
configuration, and balance
·
Hyd hydraulic quantity
·
Eng oil quantity
above 12.5 quarts
·
Door doors closed,
slides armed, crew oxygen pressure
What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist
when the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?
·
The system simulates the application of
T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
·
A warning is displayed if and system is
not configured properly
·
TO CONFIG NORMAL is displayed in the
TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
The flight control computers control trim
functions automatically
If NO hydraulic power is
available can the THS be positioned?
No. The THS requires hydraulic power from the
Green or Yellow systems.
If a complete flight control computer failure
occurs can the THS be positioned?
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by
manually positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel.
Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all
systems are working normally?
Manual inputs have priority over computer
inputs. The autopilot will disconnect.
What happens to the THS after landing?
The trim automatically resets to zero.
What controls the engines in all operating
regimes?
FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
What functions does the FADEC control?
·
Fuel metering
·
Engine limits based on thrust lever
angle
·
Start sequencing
·
Provides engine indications and thrust
limit displays on the E/WD
·
What redundancy does the FADEC have?
Dual channel redundancy one channel is active
while the other is standby.
What is the power source for the FADEC?
·
The system has its own alternator making
it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value
·
If this alternator fails the FADEC
automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
When will the FADEC abort a start?
·
Hot start
·
Stalled start
·
No ignition
If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic
start, is any crew intervention required?
No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear
the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.
When does the FADEC command a
higher engine idle speed?
·
Bleed demands
·
Approach Configuration
·
High engine or IDG temperatures
How many igniters fire during a
·
One igniter with the other serving as a
backup
·
The FADEC automatically alternates the
igniters (A and B) at each start
How many igniters fire on Manual
or In-flight starts?
Both A and B
When does continuous ignition
automatically operate?
·
Engine Anti-ice ON
·
Engine flameout detection
·
Failure of the EIU
What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust
levers?
·
TOGA
·
FLX MCT
·
CL
·
IDLE
·
MAX REV
On the ground, how do you arm the A/THR?
·
By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA
or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
·
At least one FD bust be ON for A/THR to
arm during takeoff
What is the active range of the A/THR?
·
Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2
engines)
·
Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1
engine)
What is the normal operational position of the
thrust levers when A/THR is active?
The CL detent
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR
system will be able to command?
The position detent of the thrust lever
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?
·
A/THR pb
·
Instinctive Disconnect buttons
·
Thrust Levers to IDLE
What is the preferred method of disconnecting
A/THR?
Set the thrust levers to match the TLA to the
existing N1 and disconnect using the instinctive disconnect pb.
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the
remainder of the flight?
Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect
button for 15 seconds.
Will you be able to restore A/THR?
No
What else will you lose?
Alpha Floor Protection
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on
the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?
·
Thrust TOGA
·
FMA A.FLOOR
What occurs during Alpha Floor protection after
speed increases above VLS?
FMA changes to TOGA LK
How do you then regain normal A/THR?
·
Move Thrust Levers to the TOGA detent
·
Press the Instinctive Disconnect button
·
Return Thrust Levers to CL detent
·
Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR
When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach
When would Thrust Lock occur?
·
Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb
on the FCU is pushed, or
·
A/THR disconnects due to a failure
Explain the
·
ENG MODE to IGN/START
·
ENG MASTER to ON
·
Observe Start Valve Open and gray N2
background
·
At 16% N2 Ignition (A or B) on
·
At 22% N2 HP fuel
·
At 50% N2 starter cutout
·
Approximately 58% gray N2 background
disappears
·
Idle at 60%
Explain the Manual start sequence
·
ENG MODE to IGN/START
·
ENG MAN START pb ON
·
At maximum N2 motoring speed (min 20%),
ENG MASTER ON
·
Observe AB Ignition, fuel flow increase,
EGT and N1 increase in 15 seconds
·
At 50% observe N1 starter cutout and Ignition
off
·
ENG MAN START pb OFF
What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
·
Engine MASTER switch
·
ENGINE FIRE pb
What does a fault light on the ENG panel
indicate?
·
Auto Start Abort
·
Switch disagreement between HP valve and
its commanded position
What is the rated thrust of each engine?
·
A319 23,500 lb
·
A320 27,000 lb
·
A321 32,000 lb
How many transponders are installed?
2
Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light
indicate loss of all transponder capability?
No only the selected transponder has failed
With only Green hydraulic system pressure
available, will both the flaps and slats operate?
Yes, at ½ speed
What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
What causes the WTBs
to activate (ROAM)?
·
Runaway
·
Overspeed (flaps)
·
Asymmetry
·
Movement
(un-commanded)
If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry
can the slats still operate?
Yes, only flap operation is inhibited
How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are
installed?
2
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
The slats and flaps would continue to operate,
but at half speed.
What flap/slat configurations correspond to
position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
·
CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides
both slats (position 1) + flaps
·
CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats
only
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS)
operate?
During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not
slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
What is Alpha Lock?
This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats
from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed.
When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the
upper ECAM display what is indicated?
Flaps/slats in transit
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are
extended?
The ailerons droop 5°
Is there any landing
configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
·
A319/320 Flaps FULL
·
A321 Flaps 3 and FULL
When do the Ground Spoilers automatically
extend?
·
Partial When reverse thrust is
selected on at least one engine with the other at idle and one main landing
gear strut is compressed
·
Full At touchdown of both main gear ,
or in case of RTO with airspeed above 72 knots, when BOTH thrust levers at IDLE
(if ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at least one
engine with the other thrust lever at IDLE (if the ground spoilers are not
armed)
At touchdown with reverse selected and only one
landing is compressed, will the ground spoilers extend?
Partially Full extension is limited until
both main gear are compressed.
When will the ground spoilers
automatically retract?
·
Thrust levers at idle and speed brake
lever is down
·
When at least one thrust lever is
advanced above IDLE
When is speedbrake
extension inhibited?
·
SEC 1 and 3 have failed
·
L or R elevator has failed
·
AOA protection is active
·
Flaps in configuration FULL (A319/320)
·
Flaps in configuration 3 or FULL (A321)
·
Thrust levers above the MCT position
·
Alpha Floor is active
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is
detected or electrical power is lost?
The spoiler automatically retracts.
What capabilities does the RADAR system have?
·
Weather avoidance
·
Turbulence detection
·
Terrain mapping
·
Predictive windshear detection
What would prevent the weather
display on the ND?
·
Mode selector in PLAN
·
TERR selected ON
When is WX/TURB mode available?
At ranges of 40 nm or less
Does predictive windshear detection work when
the RADAR system is switched OFF?
Yes, if the Windshear switch is in AUTO
What is the scanned area of the
predictive windshear detection feature?
Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when
the aircraft is below 1,500 feet AGL.
When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?
·
When on the ground above 100 knots until
reaching 50 feet AGL
·
When landing below 50 feet AGL
How many RADAR systems are installed?
2
How are the communications radios controlled?
From any one of the 3 RMPs
Which RMP is powered in the Emergency
Electrical Configuration?
RMP 1
Which communication radios are powered in the
Emergency Electrical Configuration?
VHF COM 1, HF 1
What would cause the SEL indicator to
illuminate on both RMPs?
When a communication radio normally associated
with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.
If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can
the FMGC still auto tune navaids?
·
No - RMP now controls the VOR/ILS
receivers
·
NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
·
Normal radio communication is still
available
With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT
position and the side stick transmit switch keyed, what will you transmit on?
The radio selected by its transmission key on
the ACP.
What methods would the crew utilize to make a
PA announcement?
·
Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and
using the boom, hand, or mask microphone, or
·
The flight deck handset dedicated to the
PA system only
What does the illumination of the CALL light on
the VHF or HF transmission keys indicate?
The SELCAL system detects a call.
Will the loudspeaker control knob control the
loudness of the aural alert and voice messages?
No
What are the main components of
the FMGS?
·
2 FMGCs
·
2 MCDUs
·
1 FCU
·
2 FACs
What are the functions of the Flight Management
Guidance Computers?
·
Flight Guidance
·
Flight Management
What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?
·
Independent
·
Single
·
Dual
What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?
·
Managed Guidance
·
Selected Guidance
What is the Managed mode of flight guidance
used for?
Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles
as determined by the FMGS.
What is the Selected
mode of flight guidance used for?
Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands
as selected with the FCU.
Does Selected or Managed Guidance have
priority?
Selected Guidance
What type of database is periodically updated
in the FMGS?
Navigation database
Can the crew modify data in the navigation
database?
The crew has limited ability to create pilot
stored navigational data.
How do you determine the validity of the
navigation database?
On the Aircraft Status page.
What input does each FMGC use for position
determination?
A hybrid IRS/GPS position.
What is the normal operational mode of the
FMGS?
Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the
other FMGS as slave
How does autopilot selection influence master
FMGS logic?
·
If one autopilot is engaged, the
respective FMGS is master
·
If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will
be the master
If an amber OFF SIDE
FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?
An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to
the same mode and range.
Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase
of flight?
No, only during an ILS approach.
What is the difference between the large and
small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
·
Large Pilot entries and modifiable
data
·
Small Default/computed non-modifiable
data
When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the
PERF TO page?
When take off begins at a runway intersection.
If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF
page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what
will occur?
·
A warning will be generated
·
Continue to move the thrust levers to the
TOGA detent and execute a max thrust takeoff
Where do you enter the Zero Fuel Weight?
INIT B page
What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?
An entry is mandatory.
What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged
and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode
engages.
What effect does setting the Parking Brake have on other braking modes?
All other braking modes and anti-skid are
deactivated.
When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is
it re-charged?
With the Yellow system electric pump.
By what means is the parking brake activated
when you turn ON the Parking Brake switch?
Electrically
Is it required to depress the brake pedals
while setting the Parking Brake?
No
How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
·
ECAM PARKING BRK memo
·
Triple indicator brake pressure
If during an engine start with
the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake
failure, what must you quickly do?
Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore
What is the thrust limitation with the PARKING
Do not exceed 75% N1.
When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the
rudder?
Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch
What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with
the autopilot engaged?
Nothing
What is the RUD TRIM button used for?
To reset the rudder trim to 0°
Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot
engaged?
No
Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from
the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?
No
What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual
Gear Extension Handle?
·
Removes Green hydraulic pressure
·
Opens gear doors
·
Unlocks the uplocks
How many cranks does it take to lower the gear
manually?
1 crank (but 3 clock-wise turns :-)
What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel
steering?
Green
The steering hand wheels can steer the nose
wheel up to how much in each direction?
+/- 75°
When using the rudder pedals for steering, when
does the steering angle begin to reduce?
Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively
reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots.
What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering
hand wheel do?
Pressing the button removes control of nose
wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.
What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG
switch were selected to OFF?
·
Nose wheel steering is lost
·
Anti-skid is deactivated
·
Yellow hydraulic system would supply the
brakes
What protections do you have in
·
High Speed
·
High Angle of Attack (AOA alpha
protection)
·
Load Factor Limitation (+2.5 / -1.0)
·
Pitch Attitude (30° UP/15° DN)
·
Bank Angle (67°)
How does the High Speed Protection operate?
If VMO/MMO plus a
predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit
aircraft speed.
Can the pilot override this pitch-up?
No
What is Alpha Max?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal
Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
How does High Angle of Attack Protection
operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds
a prot, pitch trim ceases and angle
of attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed a max even with full aft sidestick deflection.
What protections do you have in Alternate Law?
·
Load Factor
·
High speed stability
·
Low speed stability
Can you override the high or low stabilities in
Alternate Law?
Yes
What protections do you have in Direct Law?
None
If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law
would Roll be?
Direct Law
When the landing gear is extended, what happens
to Pitch Alternate Law?
Degrades to Pitch Direct Law
When is there a direct relationship between
sidestick and flight control surface deflection?
·
When in Direct Law
·
When below 100 feet
How would you get into Abnormal Law?
By exceeding approximately double the Normal
Law limits.
Can you stall the aircraft in
Not in Normal Law, but the aircraft can
be stalled in all other laws.
What is the purpose of Abnormal Alternate Law?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from
an unusual attitude.
After recovery from an unusual attitude, what
law will you be in?
Abnormal
No
What PFD indications indicate
·
Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed
limits
·
Amber/black (alpha prot)
airspeed tape
What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank
limits are amber Xs?
You are not in Normal Law
What would cause you to revert to another law?
Multiple failures of redundant systems.
What law are you in when you perform the flight
control check on the ground?
Normal Law, Ground Mode
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all
flight control computers?
Yes, with Mechanical Backup
How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical
Backup?
·
Pitch Trim wheel (horizontal
stabilizer)
·
Yaw Rudder pedals (rudder)
·
Speed Thrust levers
BONUS RESEARCH QUESTION: What is the design
weight limit on the cockpit sliding foldout tray?
|
Updated 10/09/06 |